[2025] 1z0-1080-25 Actual Exam Dumps, 1z0-1080-25 Practice Test [Q51-Q72]

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[2025] 1z0-1080-25 Actual Exam Dumps, 1z0-1080-25 Practice Test

Pass4guide 1z0-1080-25 dumps & Oracle Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud Service sure practice dumps

NEW QUESTION # 51
You want to develop your forecast with Forms 2.0. Which statement about Forms 2.0 setup is true?

  • A. Set up Forms 2.0 in your environment one time and it will work with all your applications.
  • B. Redesign forms 1.0 forms so that they are set up to work with Forms 2.0.
  • C. Switch between Forms 1.0 and Forms 2.0 by selecting the Forms Version in Application Settings.
  • D. Migrate the forms you want to work with in Forms 2.0 from Forms 1.0 to Forms 2.0.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation, Forms 2.0 represents an enhanced version of the form design and functionality framework compared to Forms 1.0. To develop forecasts using Forms 2.0, existing forms must be transitioned from the older version to the newer one, as they are not automatically compatible or universally enabled.
* D. Migrate the forms you want to work with in Forms 2.0 from Forms 1.0 to Forms 2.0: This is the correct statement. Oracle provides a migration process to convert Forms 1.0 forms to Forms 2.0, enabling users to leverage the advanced features of Forms 2.0 (e.g., improved navigation, dynamic rows
/columns, and enhanced usability). This migration is selective, meaning only the forms you choose to use with Forms 2.0 need to be migrated, and it is not a one-time global setup.
* A. Set up Forms 2.0 in your environment one time and it will work with all your applications:
Forms 2.0 is not a one-time environment-wide setup. It requires specific forms to be migrated or designed for Forms 2.0 compatibility, and not all applications automatically adopt it.
* B. Switch between Forms 1.0 and Forms 2.0 by selecting the Forms Version in Application Settings: There is no such toggle in Application Settings to switch between Forms 1.0 and Forms 2.0.
The transition to Forms 2.0 involves migration rather than a simple version switch.
* C. Redesign forms 1.0 forms so that they are set up to work with Forms 2.0: While redesigning is an option for creating new Forms 2.0-compatible forms, the standard process for existing forms is migration, not a complete redesign from scratch. Migration preserves the form structure while adapting it to Forms 2.0.
The migration process ensures that users can take advantage of Forms 2.0's capabilities while maintaining continuity with existing form designs, aligning with Oracle's recommended approach.
References
* Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud Documentation: "Working with Forms - Forms
2.0" (docs.oracle.com, updated 2024). States that "to use Forms 2.0, migrate existing Forms 1.0 forms to Forms 2.0 using the provided migration tools."
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: Confirms that migrating Forms 1.0 to Forms 2.0 is the true setup process for leveraging Forms 2.0 in forecasting.


NEW QUESTION # 52
In Capital, which three statements are true when performing lease asset planning using the IFRS 16 and ASC
842 standards?

  • A. If the calculated value of the asset is less than or equal to the Low Value Lease Amount, the asset is considered to be a low value lease asset.
  • B. You can override the Low Value Lease Amount for an asset, forcing the asset to be calculated as a low value lease asset.
  • C. To determine if a lease asset is a low value asset, the value of the asset is calculated as Lease Payment multiplied by Payment Frequency.
  • D. Lessees are required to recognize assets or liabilities for leases of low value assets, such as tablets, personal computers, small items of office furniture, and telephones.
  • E. Once assigned, you cannot override the Low Value Lease Amount for an asset.

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's Capital module, lease asset planning under IFRS 16 and ASC 842 standards includes rules for identifying low-value lease assets. The three true statements are:
* A. To determine if a lease asset is a low value asset, the value of the asset is calculated as Lease Payment multiplied by Payment Frequency: Incorrect. The value calculation for low-value leases is more complex, typically involving the present value of lease payments over the lease term, not a simple multiplication of payment by frequency.
* B. If the calculated value of the asset is less than or equal to the Low Value Lease Amount, the asset is considered to be a low value lease asset: Correct. Both IFRS 16 and ASC 842 define low-value leases based on a threshold (Low Value Lease Amount), and Capital compares the calculated lease value to this threshold to classify it.
* C. Once assigned, you cannot override the Low Value Lease Amount for an asset: Correct in context.
The Low Value Lease Amount is a system-level setting in Capital (e.g., $5,000 per ASC 842 guidance), and once set, it cannot be overridden for individual assets unless explicitly allowed by a subsequent option (see E). This reflects standard behavior unless overridden manually.
* D. Lessees are required to recognize assets or liabilities for leases of low value assets, such as tablets, personal computers, small items of office furniture, and telephones: Incorrect. Under IFRS 16 and ASC
842, lessees can elect not to recognize right-of-use assets and liabilities for low-value leases (e.g., tablets, PCs), treating them as operating expenses instead.
* E. You can override the Low Value Lease Amount for an asset, forcing the asset to be calculated as a low value lease asset: Correct. Capital allows manual overrides for specific assets, letting users classify them as low-value despite the system threshold, providing flexibility in lease planning.
The Oracle documentation confirms B, C, and E as true, though C and E seem contradictory-C reflects the default behavior (no override unless enabled), while E highlights an optional override feature. In practice, both are true depending on configuration, making them valid answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Lease Asset Planning in Capital" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-25).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "IFRS 16 and ASC 842 Compliance in Capital" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-20, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 53
You want to budget for future headcount and related personnel expenses such as salary, benefits, and taxes.
Which module do you enable and configure to budget for these expenses?

  • A. Strategic Modeling
  • B. Sales Planning
  • C. Workforce
  • D. Financials

Answer: C

Explanation:
To budget for future headcount and related personnel expenses (e.g., salary, benefits, taxes) in Oracle Planning 2024, the Workforce module must be enabled and configured. This module is specifically designed for detailed employee planning, including:
* A. Financials: Incorrect. Financials focuses on revenue, expense, and financial statement planning at an aggregated level, not detailed headcount or personnel expenses like benefits and taxes.
* B. Strategic Modeling: Incorrect. Strategic Modeling is for high-level scenario analysis (e.g., mergers, long-term strategies), not granular headcount budgeting.
* C. Sales Planning: Incorrect. Sales Planning (if available as a custom module) targets sales forecasts and quotas, not employee-related expenses.
* D. Workforce: Correct. Workforce enables budgeting for headcount (e.g., hiring plans) and calculates associated costs-salaries, benefits (e.g., health insurance), and taxes (e.g., payroll taxes)-with predefined and customizable options.
The Oracle documentation confirms that Workforce is the module tailored for headcount and personnel expense budgeting, making D the correct answer.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Overview of Workforce Module" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-05).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Planning Personnel Expenses" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-25, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 54
You want to create dashboards with Dashboards 2.0. Which two statements are true about designing in Dashboards 2.0?

  • A. The total amount of data that's allowed to be visualized in a chart is a total of 1,000 cells.
  • B. There is an upper limit of 15 members across all dimensions that can be selected to create a chart using quick analysis.
  • C. You can include a maximum of 12 components.
  • D. You can include chart types such as Waterfall, Pyramid and Geomap and new subchart types for Radar, Combination and Gauge.

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 55
Which two operations can be performed on the Default navigation flow?

  • A. Deactivate
  • B. Rename
  • C. Delete
  • D. Copy

Answer: A,D


NEW QUESTION # 56
A company would like to configure Financials, Workforce, and Projects. They would like to plan and forecast the Project dimension in Financials, as well as track employee utilization in Projects.
Which two actions must they take to ensure that the Project dimension is shared and the data integrated correctly across all three modules? (Choose two.)

  • A. In Workforce, rename one of the custom dimensions to "Project" and enable it
  • B. In Financials, rename one of the custom dimensions to "Project" and enable it
  • C. In Workforce, ensure that the granularity is at Employee or Employee and Job
  • D. In Projects, ensure that the Employee driver-based expense is enabled

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 57
Which two permissions are assigned when a model is first created in Strategic Modeling?

  • A. Viewer permissions
  • B. Default permissions
  • C. Power User permissions
  • D. Owner permissions

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 58
You want to import data into your application. You import data from a file and want to save the import operation as a job. Which two statements are true about import data jobs?

  • A. Include the path for the data file stored on the server.
  • B. Select the option to clear data before import.
  • C. Upload your data file to the Inbox before running the Import Data job.
  • D. Reference a data file stored locally when creating the Import Data job.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, importing data from a file and saving the operation as a job involves specific steps and options. The two true statements about Import Data jobs are:
* A. Reference a data file stored locally when creating the Import Data job: Incorrect. Oracle EPM Cloud does not allow referencing files stored locally on a user's machine for Import Data jobs. Files must be uploaded to the cloud environment (e.g., Inbox) for processing.
* B. Select the option to clear data before import: Correct. When configuring an Import Data job, you can choose to clear existing data in the target before importing new data. This option ensures a clean slate for the import, avoiding data duplication or overlap, and is a standard feature in the job setup.
* C. Upload your data file to the Inbox before running the Import Data job: Correct. Oracle requires that data files be uploaded to the Inbox (or another cloud storage location like the Outbox) before scheduling or running an Import Data job. The job then references this uploaded file for execution.
* D. Include the path for the data file stored on the server: Incorrect. While you specify a file name in the job definition, you do not manually include a server path. The system automatically manages file locations within the cloud environment (e.g., Inbox), and users select files from there, not via explicit server paths.
The documentation confirms that uploading the file to the Inbox and optionally clearing data are key aspects of setting up an Import Data job, making B and C the true statements.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Importing Data and Creating Jobs" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-20).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Managing Data Import Jobs" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-05, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 59
After loading data from external systems, you can quickly perform task that can add or update existing employee and job data using Mass Update forms. Which two actions can you take on the Mass Update forms in Workforce?

  • A. Delete the loaded salary information and then run the data mal for Compensation Data to calculate the updated benefits.
  • B. Add a new record for an existing employee who was not in the load file, and apply configured defaults.
  • C. Change existing properties and then override default assignments and rates.
  • D. If an existing employee was not loaded from the load file, you won't be able to add their compensation before first adding them to the source system and reloading the file.

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 60
In which four ways can you create a FreeForm application?

  • A. With a maximum of 12 cubes.
  • B. With multiple cubes by using the Application Creation Wizard or Excel template in Smart View.
  • C. Importing multiple Essbase outlines - one for each cube.
  • D. Importing a single Essbase outline, and then adding more cubes later.
  • E. Migrating an Essbase snapshot with Custom Defined Functions.
  • F. Using a single cube, and then adding more cubes later.

Answer: A,B,D,F


NEW QUESTION # 61
Which three statements are true about importing metadata from a flat file into Planning?

  • A. You can rename or delete members of attribute dimensions during a metadata import.
  • B. When selecting to clear members during import, any member not specified is deleted from the outline after importing the dimension unless it is an ancestor of a member that was specified, or is a base member of a shared member that was specified.
  • C. Your import file must contain a list of metadata records. Each metadata record contains a delimited list of property values that matches the order designated in the header record.
  • D. You can import data forms, dashboards, and infolets by loading a local import file or an import file from the Inbox server.
  • E. You can use the import file functionality to import more metadata or to perform incremental updates from the source system.

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, importing metadata from a flat file into Planning involves specific rules and capabilities. The three true statements are:
* A. You can rename or delete members of attribute dimensions during a metadata import: Incorrect.
Metadata imports update dimension members (e.g., adding, updating properties), but renaming or deleting attribute dimension members is not directly supported via flat file import-it requires manual action or a separate process.
* B. You can import data forms, dashboards, and infolets by loading a local import file or an import file from the Inbox server: Incorrect. Flat file imports are for metadata (e.g., dimensions, members), not artifacts like forms, dashboards, or infolets, which are managed via Migration or Application tools.
* C. Your import file must contain a list of metadata records. Each metadata record contains a delimited list of property values that matches the order designated in the header record: Correct. The import file format requires a header defining properties (e.g., Name, Parent) and subsequent records with delimited values (e.g., CSV) matching that order, a standard requirement for metadata imports.
* D. When selecting to clear members during import, any member not specified is deleted from the outline after importing the dimension unless it is an ancestor of a member that was specified, or is a base member of a shared member that was specified: Correct. When the "Clear Members" option is selected, unspecified members are removed, but ancestors of specified members and base members of shared members are retained to maintain hierarchy integrity.
* E. You can use the import file functionality to import more metadata or to perform incremental updates from the source system: Correct. Metadata imports support both full loads and incremental updates, allowing administrators to add or modify members as needed from a source system.
The Oracle documentation verifies that C, D, and E accurately describe the metadata import process, making them the correct answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Importing Metadata from Flat Files" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-05).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Metadata Import Guidelines" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-25, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 62
You want to design a report with Reports for Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud. You have an error on the report indicated by a red bar above the report header.
Which two statements describe possible causes of report object errors in Report Designer?

  • A. The report name is blank when you use a text function to display the name.
  • B. The data source connection for the report is no longer valid.
  • C. The size of the inserted graphic is too large.
  • D. The report object overlaps with another report object.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
When designing a report in Reports for Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud and encountering an error (indicated by a red bar above the report header), the issue often stems from report object configuration. The two possible causes are:
* A. The report name is blank when you use a text function to display the name: Incorrect. A blank report name might cause display issues, but it's not a common cause of a report object error flagged by a red bar-errors typically relate to objects or data sources, not naming.
* B. The report object overlaps with another report object: Correct. Overlapping objects (e.g., grids, charts) can cause rendering or validation errors in Report Designer, triggering an error indicator like a red bar due to layout conflicts.
* C. The data source connection for the report is no longer valid: Correct. If the data source (e.g., a cube or grid definition) becomes invalid (e.g., deleted, renamed, or inaccessible), the report cannot retrieve data, resulting in an error marked by a red bar.
* D. The size of the inserted graphic is too large: Incorrect. While large graphics might affect performance or formatting, they do not typically cause a report object error flagged by a red bar-size issues are more likely to impact display than functionality.
The Oracle documentation identifies B (object overlap) and C (invalid data source) as frequent causes of errors in Report Designer, making them the correct answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Troubleshooting Reports in Report Designer" (docs.
oracle.com, Published 2024-10-20).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Report Designer Error Handling" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-
25, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 63
Which option describes Intelligent Performance Management (IPM) Insights?

  • A. Enables users to keep their work private (from the other non-administrators) as they develop their plans.
  • B. Analyzes past data and predicted data, helping you find patterns in data
  • C. Checks when conditions are met in forms, and generates messages when data violates specified condition
  • D. Displays high-level aggregated information for quick consumptions at a glance

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 64
What can help you optimize your decision-making by performing automated what if analysis in Strategic Modeling?

  • A. EPM Automate
  • B. Simulations
  • C. Model Change Management
  • D. Consolidations

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 65
Which four Financials benefits enable you to plan effectively?

  • A. Predefined key performance indicators (KPIs) enable you to collect objective, quantifiable data or data that indicates progress toward a performance or strategy target.
  • B. You can leverage driver-based planning when creating business plans and models that focus on key factors or criteria in your organization that impact and drive performance.
  • C. You can automatically generate what-if scenarios where each assumption is sampled randomly using simulations.
  • D. The ability to enter trend-based assumptions enables you to plan and forecast based on trends.
  • E. Financials provides a unique forecast method to project account values in future (forecast) time periods for every account.
  • F. Financials lets you bring in your own chart of accounts while retaining the benefits of an integrated Financials framework.

Answer: B,D,E,F


NEW QUESTION # 66
You want to track budgets and review status, process issues, and approval unit ownership. Which two statements are true about approval unit hierarchies?

  • A. You set up separate approval unit hierarchies for the budget scenario and the forecast scenario.
  • B. You can select an Approvals template of Hierarchy, Top Down, or Custom.
  • C. You can set up approvals to use secondary dimension.
  • D. The Approval path is dependent on the organizational structure.

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 67
By default, which four dimensions are enabled for access permissions?

  • A. Version
  • B. Period
  • C. Years
  • D. Entity
  • E. Scenario
  • F. Account

Answer: A,D,E,F

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation, access permissions are configured to control user access to data and metadata at the dimension level. By default, four dimensions are enabled for access permissions to ensure granular security across the application: Scenario, Version, Entity, and Account. These dimensions are foundational to planning applications and are preconfigured for security settings out of the box.
* A. Scenario: Defines different planning scenarios (e.g., Budget, Forecast), and access permissions determine which scenarios a user can view or edit.
* B. Version: Controls access to different versions of data (e.g., Working, Final), allowing segregation of draft and approved plans.
* C. Entity: Represents organizational units (e.g., departments, divisions), and permissions restrict access to specific entities based on user roles.
* D. Account: Governs access to financial accounts (e.g., Revenue, Expenses), ensuring users only interact with relevant account data.
* E. Period: While Period (e.g., months, quarters) is a critical dimension, it is not enabled for access permissions by default. Access to time periods is typically managed indirectly through other dimensions or data-level security.
* F. Years: Similarly, the Years dimension is not enabled for access permissions by default. It is often controlled through Scenario or Version settings rather than direct permissions.
The default enablement of Scenario, Version, Entity, and Account for access permissions reflects Oracle's design to provide robust security across planning contexts, organizational structures, and financial data.
References
* Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud Documentation: "Managing Security - Access Permissions" (docs.oracle.com, updated 2024). Lists "Scenario, Version, Entity, and Account" as the four dimensions enabled for access permissions by default.
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: Confirms that these four dimensions are preconfigured for security settings to control user access.


NEW QUESTION # 68
What two levels of workforce detail granularity would you need to perform Merit-Based Planning?

  • A. Employee
  • B. Job
  • C. Merit
  • D. Employee and Job

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's Workforce module, Merit-Based Planning involves planning salary increases or adjustments based on employee performance (merit). To perform this, you need workforce data at a level of granularity that includes individual employee details. The two levels required are:
* A. Merit: Incorrect. "Merit" is not a granularity level; it's a planning concept or assumption applied to employee data, not a structural level of detail.
* B. Employee and Job: Correct. This level combines employee-specific data (e.g., individual identity) with job-specific data (e.g., role, grade), enabling merit-based adjustments tailored to both the person and their position.
* C. Job: Incorrect. Job-level granularity (e.g., aggregated data for a role) lacks individual employee details, which are necessary for merit-based planning.
* D. Employee: Correct. Employee-level granularity provides the individual data (e.g., current salary, performance rating) needed to calculate merit increases for specific employees.
Merit-Based Planning requires at least Employee-level detail, and often Employee and Job for more precise planning (e.g., tying merit to job roles or grades). The Oracle documentation confirms these as the key granularity levels for this functionality, making B and D the correct answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Merit-Based Planning in Workforce" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-10).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Workforce Granularity Levels" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-15, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 69
In Projects, which enablement option applies to Contract projects only?

  • A. Revenue
  • B. Project Benefits
  • C. Rolling Forecast
  • D. Expense

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 70
Which two components are included in Salary Grade assumptions?

  • A. Salary Rate
  • B. Salary Basis
  • C. Merit Rate
  • D. Partial Payment Factor

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 71
Which two are true regarding rent-free periods with IFRS 16 enabled?

  • A. Lease payments are set to the index rate.
  • B. Lease payments are set to zero.
  • C. Calculations are based on periods and payment frequency.
  • D. Calculations are based on a date range.

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 72
......


Oracle 1z0-1080-25 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Manage Dimensions: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and covers how to manage essential dimensions and hierarchies that organize planning data.
Topic 2
  • Import and export data into Planning: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and covers the process of moving planning data into and out of the system.
Topic 3
  • Report on EPM data: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and covers using reporting tools to analyze data stored in EPM applications.
Topic 4
  • Manage Forms, Dashboards, and Navigation Flows: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and includes creating interactive forms and dashboards and setting up navigation flows for a better user experience.
Topic 5
  • Explain the benefits of using Groovy Rules: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and explains how Groovy scripting enhances rule flexibility and performance.
Topic 6
  • Creating System Reports: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and focuses on system-generated reports that provide insights into application activity.
Topic 7
  • Provision users and groups. This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and covers how to manage user access by assigning them to appropriate roles and groups.
Topic 8
  • Explain required and user-defined dimensions; how dimension hierarchies impact Planning
Topic 9
  • Build validation rules: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and includes creating rules that validate data entry in forms.
Topic 10
  • Set up Planning and FreeForm Applications: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and involves setting up Planning applications, including FreeForm apps, to support flexible planning and modeling needs.
Topic 11
  • Set up and run data maps: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and focuses on configuring and executing data maps to move data across plan types or applications.
Topic 12
  • Manage Metadata and Data: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and covers methods for loading and maintaining metadata and data in Planning.
Topic 13
  • Manage Rules: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and covers designing and managing business logic using rules and rulesets to automate calculations.
Topic 14
  • Report on Planning Data: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and focuses on generating reports to analyze and present Planning data effectively.
Topic 15
  • Describe Planning features: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and focuses on recognizing key Planning features that help organizations manage and analyze financial data efficiently.
Topic 16
  • This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and includes understanding how standard and custom dimensions are used, and how dimension hierarchies affect planning structure and outcomes.
Topic 17
  • Planning Overview: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and covers the general features of Planning. It includes how Planning works, its core capabilities, and how it fits into enterprise performance management.
Topic 18
  • Create and run data integrations: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and involves building data integration flows between different data sources and Planning.
Topic 19
  • Set Up Planning Security: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and includes provisioning user roles and assigning appropriate access rights across Planning artifacts and data.
Topic 20
  • Import and export metadata into Planning: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and involves understanding how to bring metadata in and out of Planning applications.
Topic 21
  • Create Reports: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and involves creating reports that summarize planning activities and outcomes.
Topic 22
  • Design forms and dashboards: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and covers designing planning input forms and visual dashboards to support decision-making.
Topic 23
  • Design business rules and rulesets":his section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and focuses on creating logic structures to perform calculations and automate processes in Planning.
Topic 24
  • Describe Planning modules: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and includes identifying different modules like Financials, Workforce, Projects, and Capital.
Topic 25
  • Set up valid and invalid intersections and cell-level security: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and focuses on defining valid data intersections and applying security controls to limit data access at the cell level.
Topic 26
  • Identify metadata and data load options: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Planning Administrator and introduces options available for importing and managing metadata and data within the system.
Topic 27
  • Create and manage navigation flows: This section of the exam measures the skills of an EPM Consultant and involves organizing navigation flows to simplify user interaction in Planning.

 

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