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Managing-Cloud-Security exam torrent WGU study guide
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which description characterizes the application programming interface (API) format known as Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)?
- A. Delivers good performance and scalability
- B. Provides a framework for exchanging structured information using web services
- C. Consists of guidelines and best practices for creating scalable web services
- D. Supports different data formats such as JSON, XML, and YAML
Answer: B
Explanation:
Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) is an API format that provides a framework for exchanging structured information using web services. Managing Cloud principles explain that SOAP is a protocol- based messaging standard that relies on XML for message formatting.
SOAP defines strict standards for message structure, communication protocols, and error handling, making it suitable for enterprise environments that require reliability, security, and formal contracts. It supports features such as authentication, encryption, and transaction integrity.
The other options describe characteristics of RESTful APIs. SOAP is XML-based and does not support multiple data formats. Therefore, the correct description is the structured web service framework.
NEW QUESTION # 27
In which cloud service model is the cloud consumer responsible for installation and maintenance of the operating system?
- A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
- B. Network as a Service (NaaS)
- C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the cloud consumer is responsible for installing and maintaining the operating system. Managing Cloud principles describe that IaaS provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking, while leaving system-level management to the customer.
Customers must install operating systems, apply patches, configure security settings, and manage applications running on the infrastructure. This responsibility provides flexibility but also requires strong operational and security controls.
In PaaS and SaaS, the provider manages the operating system. NaaS focuses on network services rather than OS management. Therefore, IaaS is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which cloud architecture model provides application development services?
- A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
- B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- C. Security as a Service (SECaaS)
- D. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides application development services in cloud environments. Managing Cloud documentation explains that PaaS delivers development frameworks, programming languages, libraries, databases, and testing tools required to build and deploy applications.
This model eliminates the need to manage infrastructure and operating systems, allowing developers to rapidly create, test, and deploy applications. PaaS also supports scalability and integration with other cloud services.
SaaS delivers completed applications, IaaS provides raw infrastructure, and SECaaS focuses on security services. Therefore, PaaS is the correct model for application development services.
NEW QUESTION # 29
What is a core goal of operating system (OS) baseline compliance and monitoring?
- A. Isolate customer traffic traveling over multi-tenant networks
- B. Meet the required service levels as specified in the SLA
- C. Ensure virtual images satisfy baseline configuration requirements
- D. Separate customer data in multi-tenant hosting environments
Answer: C
Explanation:
A core goal of OS baseline compliance and monitoring is to ensure that virtual images and operating systems adhere to approved baseline configuration requirements. Managing Cloud documentation explains that baseline configurations define secure settings for operating systems, including disabled services, patch levels, access controls, and logging configurations.
Compliance monitoring continuously verifies that systems remain aligned with these baselines over time. This helps detect unauthorized changes, configuration drift, or misconfigurations that could introduce vulnerabilities. Ensuring that virtual images meet baseline standards before deployment also reduces risk across scaled cloud environments.
The other options relate to availability, network isolation, or data separation, which are addressed by different controls. Therefore, ensuring baseline configuration compliance is the primary goal of OS baseline monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 30
A security analyst is tasked with compiling a report of all people who used a system between two dates. The thorough report must include information about how long and how often the system was used. Which information should the analyst ensure is in the report?
- A. User identifications and access timestamps
- B. User commands and error timestamps
- C. Informational logs and message of the day
- D. Environmental errors and 802.1x logs
Answer: A
Explanation:
To provide a comprehensive report of system usage, the most important elements are user identifications (IDs) and access timestamps. These data points record who accessed the system, at what time, and for how long. Together, they allow the analyst to determine frequency and duration of use, which is essential for both operational auditing and security oversight.
Other options, such as informational logs or error logs, may provide context but do not directly answer the requirement of identifying users and usage patterns. For instance, 802.1x logs are related to network authentication, while commands or error timestamps reveal activity details but not the overall access history.
Collecting and analyzing IDs and timestamps supports compliance with regulatory frameworks like ISO
27001 and SOC 2, which require clear audit trails. It also provides accountability and supports investigations in case of unauthorized access or misuse. By including these elements, the analyst ensures the report meets internal and external requirements for system monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which security control could be implemented as part of a layered physical defense at a cloud hosting site?
- A. Access control enforcement
- B. Background checks
- C. Video surveillance capability
- D. Multifactor authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Video surveillance capability is a key security control used as part of a layered physical defense at a cloud hosting site. Managing Cloud principles explain that physical security relies on multiple overlapping controls to deter, detect, and respond to unauthorized physical access.
Video surveillance provides continuous monitoring of data center facilities, including entrances, exits, server rooms, and perimeter boundaries. It acts as both a deterrent and a detection mechanism, enabling real-time observation and post-incident investigation. Surveillance footage supports incident response, forensic analysis, and compliance requirements.
Access control enforcement and multifactor authentication are primarily logical or administrative controls, while background checks are personnel security measures. Although important, they are not physical perimeter controls. Therefore, video surveillance capability is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which design principle of secure cloud computing ensures that users have access to a large number of resources that grow based on user demand?
- A. Collaboration
- B. Rapid elasticity
- C. Resource pooling
- D. Virtualization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Rapid elasticity is the design principle that ensures cloud resources can grow or shrink dynamically based on user demand. Managing Cloud principles explain that rapid elasticity allows cloud systems to automatically scale resources such as compute, storage, and bandwidth in near real time.
This capability ensures that users experience consistent performance even during sudden increases in workload. Resources are provisioned when needed and released when demand decreases, enabling efficient utilization and cost control. From a security perspective, elasticity also supports resilience and availability by preventing resource exhaustion.
Resource pooling enables shared infrastructure, virtualization enables abstraction, and collaboration is not a cloud design principle. Therefore, rapid elasticity is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which phase of the cloud data life cycle involves the process of crypto-shredding?
- A. Create
- B. Destroy
- C. Store
- D. Archive
Answer: B
Explanation:
TheDestroyphase of the cloud data life cycle is where information is permanently removed from systems. A common technique in cloud environments for this phase iscrypto-shredding(or cryptographic erasure).
Rather than physically destroying the media, crypto-shredding involves deleting or revoking encryption keys used to protect the data. Once those keys are destroyed, the encrypted data becomes mathematically unrecoverable, even if the underlying storage media remains intact.
This method is particularly useful in cloud environments where storage is virtualized and hardware cannot easily be physically destroyed. Crypto-shredding provides compliance-friendly assurance that sensitive data such as personally identifiable information (PII), financial data, or healthcare records cannot be accessed after retention periods expire or contractual obligations end.
By incorporating crypto-shredding into theDestroyphase, organizations align with standards forsecure data sanitization. This ensures legal defensibility during audits and e-discovery and demonstrates proper lifecycle governance. The emphasis is on making data inaccessible while still maintaining operational efficiency and environmental responsibility.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A company has determined that encryption has too much overhead to work with their system and has identified tokenization as an alternative. During this process, the tokenization server generates the token.
Which step should occur immediately after this action?
- A. Data is sent to the tokenization server.
- B. The application stores the token rather than the original data.
- C. The tokenization server returns the token to the application.
- D. The application generates a piece of sensitive data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a standard tokenization workflow, once the tokenization server generates the token, the next immediate step is for the tokenization server to return the token to the requesting application. Managing Cloud principles describe tokenization as a process where sensitive data is replaced with a non-sensitive token that has no exploitable meaning outside the tokenization system.
After the sensitive data is securely transmitted to the tokenization server and the token is generated, the application must receive that token so it can continue normal processing without handling the original sensitive value. The return of the token enables the application to complete transactions, store references, or perform business operations without exposing sensitive data.
The other options represent steps that occur either before token generation or later in the workflow. Data must be sent to the tokenization server and sensitive data must be generated before a token can be created. Storing the token occurs after the application receives it. Therefore, returning the token to the application is the correct immediate next step.
NEW QUESTION # 35
What is the definition of transportable as it relates to cloud contract design requirements?
- A. Able to be moved to another vendor
- B. Able to be archived quickly
- C. Available to be accessed by mobile devices
- D. Available in a proprietary format
Answer: A
Explanation:
In cloud contract design, transportable means that data, applications, or services are able to be moved to another vendor. Managing Cloud principles explain that transportability supports exit strategies, reduces vendor lock-in risk, and enables business continuity.
Transportable solutions rely on standardized data formats, documented APIs, and interoperable architectures.
Contracts often include provisions ensuring customers can retrieve data in usable formats and migrate workloads if needed.
Access by mobile devices, proprietary formats, or rapid archiving do not address vendor independence.
Therefore, the correct definition of transportable is the ability to move to another vendor.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which phase of software design covers the combination of individual components of developed code and the determination of proper interoperability?
- A. Testing
- B. Coding
- C. Training
- D. Planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
The phase of software design that integrates individual code components and verifies their interoperability is Testing, specifically integration testing. After developers write and unit-test individual modules, those modules must be combined into a complete system. The testing phase ensures that these modules communicate properly, data flows correctly, and overall functionality meets requirements.
Planning establishes project goals, coding builds individual components, and training prepares users. None of these directly verify interoperability. Testing is critical because even well-functioning components may fail when combined, due to interface mismatches, unexpected data structures, or dependency issues.
Cloud-based systems often integrate microservices, APIs, and third-party services. Testing validates that these distributed components interact seamlessly. Proper testing reduces defects, supports reliability, and ensures a consistent end-user experience. It also aligns with DevOps practices, where continuous integration and automated testing pipelines quickly identify and remediate interoperability issues.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) test requires the whole organization to participate in a scheduled disaster scenario without performing all of the actual tasks?
- A. Tabletop
- B. Full
- C. Dry run
- D. Parallel
Answer: C
Explanation:
A dry run disaster recovery plan test requires broad organizational participation in a simulated disaster scenario without executing all production-impacting tasks. Managing Cloud principles explain that dry run testing validates coordination, communication, and procedural readiness while avoiding the risks of full operational disruption.
In a dry run, teams follow documented recovery steps conceptually or in limited execution, verifying that dependencies, responsibilities, and sequencing are correct. This approach provides higher fidelity than tabletop exercises, which are discussion-based, while avoiding the operational risks of full or parallel tests.
Parallel tests involve running recovery systems alongside production, and full tests execute all recovery actions, often causing service disruption. Therefore, a dry run offers a balanced method to test preparedness across the organization without full execution.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which description accurately characterizes the movement of applications to the cloud?
- A. In a software as a service (SaaS) environment, the CSP is responsible for securing the platform.
- B. In a desktop as a service (DaaS) environment, the customer is responsible for securing the underlying infrastructure.
- C. In an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) environment, the CSP is responsible for securing the platform.
- D. In a platform as a service (PaaS) environment, the customer is responsible for securing the underlying infrastructure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a Software as a Service (SaaS) environment, the cloud service provider (CSP) is responsible for securing the platform. Managing Cloud principles explain that SaaS places the majority of security responsibilities on the provider, including infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, and application security.
Customers primarily manage user access, data usage, and configuration settings, while the provider ensures availability, patching, vulnerability management, and platform protection. This division of responsibility simplifies security management for consumers.
The other options misrepresent shared responsibility boundaries. In IaaS, customers secure the platform, and in PaaS, providers manage infrastructure. Therefore, option D accurately characterizes application movement to the cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Developers need to be aware of a common application programming interface (API) threat that occurs when attackers send malicious code through a form input to a web application so that it may then be executed.
Which type of attack represents this API threat?
- A. Injection
- B. On-path
- C. Credential
- D. Denial-of-service
Answer: A
Explanation:
The described scenario is aninjection attack. Injection occurs when unvalidated input-such as SQL commands, script code, or OS instructions-is sent to an application through API forms or parameters. If the application fails to sanitize input, the attacker's code may be executed with full system privileges.
On-path attacks intercept communication, credential attacks target authentication, and denial-of-service floods services. None involve code execution via unvalidated input.
Injection is a top risk in OWASP API Security Top 10. Developers must implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principles to mitigate this risk. API gateways and WAFs provide additional layers of protection but cannot replace secure coding practices.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which U.S. standard is used by federal government agencies to manage enterprise risk?
- A. The Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements 18 (SSAE 18)
- B. The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO) framework
- C. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 37500
- D. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-37
Answer: D
Explanation:
Federal agencies in the U.S. rely onNIST SP 800-37, Risk Management Framework (RMF), to manage enterprise risk. RMF provides a structured process for categorizing systems, selecting controls, implementing safeguards, assessing effectiveness, authorizing operations, and continuous monitoring.
ISO 37500 deals with outsourcing governance, SSAE 18 governs service provider audits, and COSO is a corporate governance framework but not specific to federal agencies.
NIST RMF is integrated with the Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA) requirements, ensuring agencies manage cybersecurity risks consistently. Its adoption is expanding beyond government into industries seeking comprehensive, repeatable risk management processes.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which device is used to create and manage encryption keys used for data transmission in a cloud-based environment?
- A. RAID controller
- B. Trusted platform module (TPM)
- C. Memory controller
- D. Hardware security module (HSM)
Answer: D
Explanation:
AHardware Security Module (HSM)is a dedicated, tamper-resistant device designed for creating, managing, and storing encryption keys. In cloud environments, HSMs are essential for securing cryptographic operations, such as SSL/TLS key management, digital signatures, and secure data transmission.
TPMs are hardware chips used to secure local devices, such as laptops. Memory controllers and RAID controllers manage system performance and storage but are not cryptographic devices.
HSMs provide strong protection against key theft or misuse by isolating cryptographic functions from general- purpose computing resources. They are often certified under standards like FIPS 140-2, ensuring compliance with stringent security requirements. In cloud services, customers can use provider-managed HSMs or deploy dedicated virtual HSM instances for secure key management.
NEW QUESTION # 42
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