[2023] Pass Palo Alto Networks PCCET Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps [Q13-Q38]

Share

[2023] Pass Palo Alto Networks PCCET Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps

Verified PCCET dumps Q&As - PCCET dumps with Correct Answers


Intro to the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification Exam:

PCCET stands for “Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician”. PCCET exam is authorized by the Palo Alto Networks education service team and designed for individuals who are looking to enter the IT security field or are seeking a job in a technology company that uses cybersecurity technologies. The test is based on foundational knowledge in the cybersecurity field which encompasses network security, SOC security, cloud security, and other advanced technology trends. Candidates must be able to demonstrate the ability to understand how cyber threats manifest themselves, where they originate, and what the right defenses are to stop them. PCCET Dumps is an excellent tool for those who want to test their skills and get certification from one of the world's leading cybersecurity vendors. This is the first and only cybersecurity entry-level certification offered by Palo Alto Networks Education Services.

Furthermore, this certification aims to validate candidates' fundamental cybersecurity, network security, cloud security, and SOC security knowledge through an online examination. Upon completion of the exam, candidates will receive a certificate that verifies their understanding of the core concepts, principles, and practices of the cybersecurity field. In addition to the certificate, all candidates will also receive a score based on their performance on the test.


Palo Alto Networks PCCET (Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician) Exam is an entry-level certification offered by Palo Alto Networks for individuals seeking to start a career in cybersecurity. PCCET exam is designed to assess an individual's knowledge and skills in the field of cybersecurity, including network security, endpoint protection, cloud security, and security operations. The PCCET certification is ideal for students, recent graduates, and IT professionals who are new to the field of cybersecurity and are looking to gain foundational knowledge and skills.

 

NEW QUESTION # 13
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

  • A. Network
  • B. Management
  • C. Security
  • D. Cloud

Answer: C

Explanation:
A SASE solution converges networking and security services into one unified, cloud-delivered solution (see Figure 3-12) that includes the following:
* Networking
* Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)
* Virtual private networks (VPNs)
* Zero Trust network access (ZTNA)
* Quality of Service (QoS)
* Security
* Firewall as a service (FWaaS)
* Domain Name System (DNS) security
* Threat prevention
* Secure web gateway (SWG)
* Data loss prevention (DLP)
* Cloud access security broker (CASB)


NEW QUESTION # 14
A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?

  • A. spam
  • B. phishing
  • C. whaling
  • D. pharming

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 15
Which key component is used to configure a static route?

  • A. router ID
  • B. routing protocol
  • C. next hop IP address
  • D. enable setting

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 16
In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

  • A. SaaS
  • B. IaaS
  • C. On-premises
  • D. PaaS

Answer: A,D


NEW QUESTION # 17
Which option is a Prisma Access security service?

  • A. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)
  • B. Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)
  • C. Compute Security
  • D. Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)

Answer: D

Explanation:
Prisma Access provides firewall as a service (FWaaS) that protects branch offices from threats while also providing the security services expected from a next-generation firewall. The full spectrum of FWaaS includes threat prevention, URL filtering, sandboxing, and more.


NEW QUESTION # 18
Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

  • A. STIX
  • B. WildFire
  • C. Cortex XDR
  • D. AutoFocus

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
XDR solutions bring a proactive approach to threat detection and response. It delivers visibility across all data, including endpoint, network, and cloud data, while applying analytics and automation to address today's increasingly sophisticated threats. With XDR, cybersecurity teams can:
Identify hidden, stealthy, and sophisticated threats proactively and quickly Track threats across any source or location within the organization Increase the productivity of the people operating the technology Get more out of their security investments Conclude investigations more efficiently


NEW QUESTION # 19
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

  • A. Network
  • B. Management
  • C. Security
  • D. Cloud

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 20
What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

  • A. Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments
  • B. Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure
  • C. Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location
  • D. Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS
  • E. Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Explanation
Simplicity: Because each device is centrally managed, with routing based on application policies, WAN managers can create and update security rules in real time as network requirements change. Also, when SD-WAN is combined with zero-touch provisioning, a feature that helps automate the deployment and configuration processes, organizations can further reduce the complexity, resources, and operating expenses required to spin up new sites. Improved performance: By allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without the need to backhaul traffic to centralized locations, organizations can provide a better user experience.


NEW QUESTION # 21
Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

  • A. Threat Prevention
  • B. Data Loss Prevention
  • C. Denial of Service
  • D. DevOps
  • E. Data Exposure Control

Answer: A,B,E


NEW QUESTION # 22
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

  • A. Star Topology
  • B. Bus Topology
  • C. Spine Leaf Topology
  • D. Mesh Topology

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 23
Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

  • A. Split Horizon
  • B. Hop Count
  • C. Path Vector
  • D. Shortest Path

Answer: B

Explanation:
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an example of a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its routing metric. To prevent routing loops, in which packets effectively get stuck bouncing between various router nodes, RIP implements a hop limit of 15, which limits the size of networks that RIP can support. After a data packet crosses 15 router nodes (hops) between a source and a destination, the destination is considered unreachable.


NEW QUESTION # 24
On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?

  • A. endpoint-based firewall
  • B. software patches
  • C. strong user passwords
  • D. full-disk encryption

Answer: B

Explanation:
New software vulnerabilities and exploits are discovered all the time and thus diligent software patch management is required by system and security administrators in every organization.


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

  • A. Lateral movement within a cloud or data center
  • B. An internal three-tier application
  • C. Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter
  • D. Traffic between an internal server and internal user

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 26
Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

  • A. Integrations
  • B. Case management
  • C. Ticketing system
  • D. Playbooks

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 27
In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

  • A. True-negative
  • B. False-negative
  • C. False-positive
  • D. True-positive

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
In anti-malware, a false positive incorrectly identifies a legitimate file or application as malware. A false negative incorrectly identifies malware as a legitimate file or application. In intrusion detection, a false positive incorrectly identifies legitimate traffic as a threat, and a false negative incorrectly identifies a threat as legitimate traffic.


NEW QUESTION # 28
Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

  • A. DNS Security
  • B. WildFire
  • C. Threat Prevention
  • D. URL Filtering

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 29
Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation
The basic DNS record types are as follows:
A (IPv4) or AAAA (IPv6) (Address): Maps a domain or subdomain to an IP address or multiple IP addresses CNAME (Canonical Name): Maps a domain or subdomain to another hostname MX (Mail Exchanger): Specifies the hostname or hostnames of email servers for a domain PTR (Pointer): Points to a CNAME; commonly used for reverse DNS lookups that map an IP address to a host in a domain or subdomain SOA (Start of Authority): Specifies authoritative information about a DNS zone such as primary name server, email address of the domain administrator, and domain serial number NS (Name Server): The NS record specifies aan authoritative name server for a given host.
TXT (Text): Stores text-based information


NEW QUESTION # 30
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

  • A. Packet
  • B. Segment
  • C. Frame
  • D. Data

Answer: A

Explanation:
The IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses to the TCP segment (which now is called an IP packet) and notifies the server operating system that it has an outgoing message ready to be sent across the network.


NEW QUESTION # 31
If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?

  • A. The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.
  • B. The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.
  • C. The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.
  • D. The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

  • A. Mirai
  • B. Parager
  • C. Jasager
  • D. Evil twin

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 33
Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

  • A. STIX
  • B. AutoFocus
  • C. WildFire
  • D. Global Protect

Answer: B

Explanation:
page 173 "AutoFocus makes over a billion samples and sessions, including billions of artifacts, immediately actionable for security analysis and response efforts. AutoFocus extends the product portfolio with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows. Together, the platform and AutoFocus move security teams away from legacy manual approaches that rely on aggregating a growing number of detectionbased alerts and post-event mitigation, to preventing sophisticated attacks and enabling proactive hunting activities."


NEW QUESTION # 34
In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

  • A. simplifies security policy management
  • B. reduces network latency
  • C. causes security policies to be complex
  • D. improves security policy application ID enforcement

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Multiple policies, no policy reconciliation tools: Sequential traffic analysis (stateful inspection, application control, intrusion prevention system (IPS), anti-malware, etc.) in traditional data center security solutions requires a corresponding security policy or profile, often using multiple management tools. The result is that your security policies become convoluted as you build and manage a firewall policy with source, destination, user, port, and action; an application control policy with similar rules; and any other threat prevention rules required. Multiple security policies that mix positive (firewall) and negative (application control, IPS, and anti-malware) control models can cause security holes by missing traffic and/or not identifying


NEW QUESTION # 35
Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

  • A. East-West traffic
  • B. North-South traffic
  • C. Interzone traffic
  • D. Intrazone traffic

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 36
Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

  • A. Prisma Cloud
  • B. Cortex XSOAR
  • C. AutoFocus
  • D. Cortex XDR

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 37
What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications?

  • A. Allow downloads to managed devices but block them from unmanaged devices.
  • B. Allow users to choose their own applications to access data.
  • C. Leave data security in the hands of the cloud service provider.
  • D. Allow downloads to both managed and unmanaged devices.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 38
......


The PCCET exam is recognized globally and is an excellent starting point for individuals who are new to the cybersecurity field. PCCET exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge of the cybersecurity concepts and principles, and it is suitable for individuals who are looking to gain an understanding of the fundamental concepts of cybersecurity. It is also suitable for individuals who are looking to validate their knowledge or skills in cybersecurity.

 

PCCET certification guide Q&A from Training Expert Pass4guide: https://www.pass4guide.com/PCCET-exam-guide-torrent.html

The Best Certified Cybersecurity Associate Study Guide for the PCCET Exam: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1wYZQvwNF1fTpJdBmeSxRN6jLFVAzHygy