ISC CCSP Exam Prep Guide: Prep guide for the CCSP Exam
2024 New Preparation Guide of ISC CCSP Exam
The CCSP certification is vendor-neutral, which means that it is not tied to any specific cloud platform or provider. This allows professionals to demonstrate their expertise in cloud security across multiple platforms and providers. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification is also recognized by major industry associations, such as the International Association of Privacy Professionals (IAPP), the National Cyber Security Alliance (NCSA), and others.
ISC CCSP Certification Exam is a computer-based exam consisting of 125 multiple-choice questions. Candidates have four hours to complete the exam, and a passing score of 700 out of 1000 is required to earn the certification. CCSP exam is available in English, Japanese, and Portuguese.
NEW QUESTION # 424
What concept does the "I" represent with the STRIDE threat model?
- A. Integrity
- B. IT security
- C. Information disclosure
- D. Insider threat
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
Perhaps the biggest concern for any user is having their personal and sensitive information disclosed by an application. There are many aspects of an application to consider with security and protecting this information, and it is very difficult for any application to fully ensure security from start to finish. The obvious focus is on security within the application itself, as well as protecting and storing the data.
NEW QUESTION # 425
Which of the following is an example of useful and sufficient data masking of the string
"CCSP"?
Response:
- A. 3X91
- B. TtLp
- C. PSCC
- D. XCSP
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 426
Data labels could include all the following, except:
- A. Access restrictions
- B. Confidentiality level
- C. Multifactor authentication
- D. Distribution limitations
Answer: C
Explanation:
All the others might be included in data labels, but multifactor authentication is a procedure used for access control, not a label.
NEW QUESTION # 427
BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but only those deemed critical to their business.
Which concept pertains to the amount of data and services needed to reach the predetermined level of operations?
- A. RTO
- B. SRE
- C. RPO
- D. RSL
Answer: C
Explanation:
The recovery point objective (RPO) sets and defines the amount of data an organization must have available or accessible to reach the predetermined level of operations necessary during a BCDR situation. The recovery time objective (RTO) measures the amount of time necessary to recover operations to meet the BCDR plan.
The recovery service level (RSL) measures the percentage of operations that would be recovered during a BCDR situation. SRE is provided as an erroneous response.
NEW QUESTION # 428
Which of the following is NOT one of five principles of SOC Type 2 audits?
- A. Security
- B. Privacy
- C. Processing integrity
- D. Financial
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SOC Type 2 audits include five principles: security, privacy, processing integrity, availability, and confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 429
Which term relates to the application of scientific methods and practices to evidence?
- A. Theoretical
- B. Forensics
- C. Measured
- D. Methodical
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Forensics is the application of scientific and methodical processes to identify, collect, preserve, analyze, and summarize/report digital information and evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 430
The most pragmatic option for data disposal in the cloud is which of the following?
- A. Melting
- B. Cryptoshredding
- C. Overwriting
- D. Cold fusion
Answer: B
Explanation:
We don't have physical ownership, control, or even access to the devices holding the data, so physical destruction, including melting, is not an option. Overwriting is a possibility, but it is complicated by the difficulty of locating all the sectors and storage areas that might have contained our data, and by the likelihood that constant backups in the cloud increase the chance we'll miss something as it's being overwritten. Cryptoshredding is the only reasonable alternative.
Cold fusion is a red herring.
NEW QUESTION # 431
Which of the following terms is NOT a commonly used category of risk acceptance?
- A. Minimal
- B. Moderate
- C. Accepted
- D. Critical
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation
Accepted is not a risk acceptance category. The risk acceptance categories are minimal, low, moderate, high, and critical.
NEW QUESTION # 432
How is an object stored within an object storage system?
- A. LDAP
- B. Key value
- C. Tree structure
- D. Database
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Object storage uses a flat structure with key values to store and access objects.
NEW QUESTION # 433
Without the extensive funds of a large corporation, a small-sized company could gain considerable and cost-effective services for which of the following concepts by moving to a cloud environment?
- A. Development
- B. Security
- C. Testing
- D. Regulatory
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud environments, regardless of the specific deployment model used, have extensive and robust security controls in place, especially in regard to physical and infrastructure security. A small company can leverage the extensive security controls and monitoring provided by a cloud provider, which they would unlikely ever be able to afford on their own. Moving to a cloud would not result in any gains for development and testing because these areas require the same rigor regardless of where deployment and hosting occur. Regulatory compliance in a cloud would not be a gain for an organization because it would likely result in additional oversight and auditing as well as require the organization to adapt to a new environment.
NEW QUESTION # 434
Which aspect of cloud computing makes it very difficult to perform repeat audits over time to track changes and compliance?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Resource pooling
- C. Multitenancy
- D. Dynamic optimization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cloud environments will regularly change virtual machines as patching and versions are changed. Unlike a physical environment, there is little continuity from one period of time to another. It is very unlikely that the same virtual machines would be in use during a repeat audit.
NEW QUESTION # 435
What controls the formatting and security settings of a volume storage system within a cloud environment?
- A. SAN host controller
- B. Hypervisor
- C. Operating system of the host
- D. Management plane
Answer: C
Explanation:
Once a storage LUN is allocated to a virtual machine, the operating system of that virtual machine will format, manage, and control the file system and security of the data on that LUN.
NEW QUESTION # 436
When using a PaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?
- A. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure provider-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
- B. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the consumer supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
- C. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
- D. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The provider does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to "The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing," in PaaS, "the capability provided to the consumer is to deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools supported by the provider. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
NEW QUESTION # 437
You are the IT security manager for a video game software development company. Which of the following is most likely to be your primary concern on a daily basis?
Response:
- A. Security flaws in your products
- B. Security flaws in your organization
- C. Health and human safety
- D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 438
What is the only data format permitted with the SOAP API?
- A. XML
- B. SAML
- C. HTML
- D. XSML
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SOAP protocol only supports the XML data format.
NEW QUESTION # 439
In addition to whatever audit results the provider shares with the customer, what other mechanism does the customer have to ensure trust in the provider's performance and duties?
- A. Security control matrix
- B. Statutes
- C. HIPAA
- D. The contract
Answer: D
Explanation:
The contract between the provider and customer enhances the customer's trust by holding the provider financially liable for negligence or inadequate service (although the customer remains legally liable for all inadvertent disclosures). Statutes, however, largely leave customers liable. The security control matrix is a tool for ensuring compliance with regulations. HIPAA is a statute.
NEW QUESTION # 440
Which type of testing tends to produce the best and most comprehensive results for discovering system vulnerabilities?
Response:
- A. Vulnerability
- B. Dynamic
- C. Pen
- D. Static
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 441
Which type of controls are the SOC Type 1 reports specifically focused on?
- A. Privacy
- B. Integrity
- C. PII
- D. Financial
Answer: D
Explanation:
SOC Type 1 reports are focused specifically on internal controls as they relate to financial reporting.
NEW QUESTION # 442
Your company is in the planning stages of moving applications that have large data sets to a cloud environment.
What strategy for data removal would be the MOST appropriate for you to recommend if costs and speed are primary considerations?
- A. Overwriting
- B. Crypthographic erasure
- C. Media destruction
- D. Shredding
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Cryptographic erasure involves having the data encrypted, typically as a matter of standard operations, and then rendering the data useless and unreadable by destroying the encryption keys for it. It represents a very cheap and immediate way to destroy data, and it works in all environments. With a cloud environment and multitenancy, media destruction or the physical destruction of storage devices, including shredding, would not be possible. Depending on the environment, overwriting may or may not be possible, but cryptographic erasure is the best answer because it is always an available option and is very quick to implement.
NEW QUESTION # 443
Which of the following would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Resource pooling
- C. Multitenancy
- D. Regulation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
With cloud providers hosting a number of different customers, it would be impractical for them to pursue additional certifications based on the needs of a specific customer. Cloud environments are built to a common denominator to serve the greatest number of customers, and especially within a public cloud model, it is not possible or practical for a cloud provider to alter their services for specific customer demands.
NEW QUESTION # 444
Which of the following features is a main benefit of PaaS over IaaS?
- A. High-availability
- B. Location independence
- C. Physical security requirements
- D. Auto-scaling
Answer: D
Explanation:
With PaaS providing a fully configured and managed framework, auto-scaling can be implemented to programmatically adjust resources based on the current demands of the environment.
NEW QUESTION # 445
What is the cloud service model in which the customer is responsible for administration of the OS?
Response:
- A. PaaS
- B. QaaS
- C. IaaS
- D. SaaS
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 446
If bit-splitting is used to store data sets across multiple jurisdictions, how may this enhance security?
Response:
- A. By making seizure of data by law enforcement more difficult
- B. By restricting privilege user access
- C. By ensuring that users can only accidentally disclose data to one geographic area
- D. By hiding it from attackers in a specific jurisdiction
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 447
Which of the cloud deployment models offers the easiest initial setup and access for the cloud customer?
- A. Hybrid
- B. Community
- C. Private
- D. Public
Answer: D
Explanation:
Because the public cloud model is available to everyone, in most instances all a customer will need to do to gain access is set up an account and provide a credit card number through the service's web portal. No additional contract negotiations, agreements, or specific group memberships are typically needed to get started.
NEW QUESTION # 448
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