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NEW QUESTION # 254
An architecture firm is considering upgrading its computer-aided design (CAD) software to the newest version that forces storage of backups of all CAD files on the software's cloud server. Which of the following is MOST likely to be of concern to the IT manager?
- A. Extra technician hours must be budgeted during installation of updates
- B. Large update and installation files will overload the local hard drives.
- C. All updated software must be tested with alt system types and accessories
- D. Network utilization will be significantly increased due to the size of CAD files
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 255
Which of the following physical security controls can prevent laptops from being stolen?
- A. Bollards
- B. Equipment lock
- C. Multifactor authentication
- D. LoJack
- E. Encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
An equipment lock is a physical security device that attaches a laptop to a fixed object, such as a desk or a table, with a cable and a lock. This can prevent the laptop from being stolen by unauthorized persons. Encryption, LoJack, multifactor authentication and bollards are other security measures, but they do not physically prevent theft. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/physical-security https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 256
A technician needs to ensure that USB devices are not suspended by the operating system. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician use to configure the setting?
- A. Power Options
- B. System
- C. Ease of Access
- D. Devices and Printers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Power Options is a Control Panel utility that allows users to configure the power settings of their computer, such as when to turn off the display, when to put the computer to sleep, and how to manage the battery life.
Power Options also allows users to configure the USB selective suspend setting, which is a feature that automatically suspends the power supply to USB devices that are not in use, in order to save energy. A user can disable this setting if they want to ensure that USB devices are not suspended by the operating system.
System, Devices and Printers, and Ease of Access are not Control Panel utilities that can be used to configure the USB selective suspend setting.
NEW QUESTION # 257
A user added a second monitor and wants to extend the display to it. In which of the following Windows settings will the user MOST likely be able to make this change?
- A. System
- B. Accessibility
- C. Personalization
- D. Devices
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The user can most likely make the change of extending the display to a second monitor in the System option in the Windows settings. The System option allows users to manage system settings and features, such as display, sound, notifications, power and storage. The user can extend the display to a second monitor by selecting Display from the System option and then choosing Extend these displays from the Multiple displays drop-down menu. This will allow the user to use both monitors as one large desktop area. Devices is an option in the Windows settings that allows users to add and manage devices connected to the computer, such as printers, scanners, mice and keyboards. Devices is not related to extending the display to a second monitor but to configuring device settings and preferences. Personalization is an option in the Windows settings that allows users to customize the appearance and behavior of their desktop, such as themes, colors, backgrounds, lock screen and screensaver.
NEW QUESTION # 258
A customer calls desktop support and begins yelling at a technician. The customer claims to have submitted a support ticket two hours ago and complains that the issue still has not been resolved. Which of the following describes how the technician should respond?
- A. Disconnect the call to avoid a confrontation.
- B. Place the customer on hold until the customer calms down.
- C. Escalate the issue to a supervisor.
- D. Wait until the customer is done speaking and offer assistance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to deal with an angry customer who is yelling at a technician is to wait until the customer is done speaking and offer assistance. This shows respect, empathy, and professionalism, and allows the technician to understand the customer's problem and find a solution. According to the CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide1, some of the steps to handle angry customers are:
Stay calm and do not take it personally.
Listen actively and acknowledge the customer's feelings.
Apologize sincerely and offer to help.
Restate the customer's issue and ask for clarification if needed.
Explain the possible causes and solutions for the problem.
Provide clear and realistic expectations for the resolution.
Follow up with the customer until the issue is resolved.
The other options are not appropriate ways to deal with angry customers, as they may worsen the situation or damage the customer relationship. Placing the customer on hold may make them feel ignored or dismissed.
Disconnecting the call may make them feel disrespected or abandoned. Escalating the issue to a supervisor may make them feel frustrated or powerless, unless the technician cannot resolve the issue or the customer requests to speak to a supervisor.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives2
CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide1
How To Deal with Angry Customers (With Examples and Tips)3
17 ways to deal with angry customers: Templates and examples4
Six Ways to Handle Angry Customers5
NEW QUESTION # 259
In which of the following scenarios would remote wipe capabilities MOST likely be used? (Select TWO).
- A. A user left the phone at home and wants to prevent children from gaining access to the phone.
- B. A new IT policy requires users to set up a lock screen PIN.
- C. A user forgot the phone in a taxi, and the driver called the company to return the device.
- D. A user cannot locate the phone after attending a play at a theater.
- E. A user is overseas and wants to use a compatible international SIM Card.
- F. A user traded in the company phone for a cell carrier upgrade by mistake.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
Remote wipe capabilities are used to erase all data on a mobile device remotely. This can be useful in situations where a device is lost or stolen, or when sensitive data needs to be removed from a device. Remote wipe capabilities are most likely to be used in the following scenarios:
E: A user cannot locate the phone after attending a play at a theater.
F: A user forgot the phone in a taxi, and the driver called the company to return the device1 In scenario E, remote wipe capabilities would be used to prevent unauthorized access to the device and to protect sensitive data. In scenario F, remote wipe capabilities would be used to erase all data on the device before it is returned to the user.
NEW QUESTION # 260
Which of the following would allow physical access to a restricted area while maintaining a record of events?
- A. Key fob
- B. Access control vestibule
- C. Hard token
- D. Door Lock
Answer: B
Explanation:
Access control vestibule is the correct answer for this question. An access control vestibule is a physical security device that consists of two doors that form an enclosed space between them. The first door opens only after verifying the identity of the person entering, such as by using a card reader, biometric scanner, or keypad. The second door opens only after the first door closes, creating a buffer zone that prevents unauthorized access or tailgating. An access control vestibule also maintains a record of events, such as who entered or exited, when, and how. Hard token, key fob, and door lock are not sufficient to meet the requirements of this question. A hard token is a device that generates a one-time password or code for authentication purposes. A key fob is a small device that can be attached to a key ring and used to unlock doors or start vehicles remotely. A door lock is a mechanism that secures a door from opening without a key or a code. Reference:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 25
NEW QUESTION # 261
In which of the following scenarios would remote wipe capabilities MOST likely be used? (Select TWO).
- A. A user left the phone at home and wants to prevent children from gaining access to the phone.
- B. A new IT policy requires users to set up a lock screen PIN.
- C. A user forgot the phone in a taxi, and the driver called the company to return the device.
- D. A user cannot locate the phone after attending a play at a theater.
- E. A user is overseas and wants to use a compatible international SIM Card.
- F. A user traded in the company phone for a cell carrier upgrade by mistake.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
E) A user cannot locate the phone after attending a play at a theater. F. A user forgot the phone in a taxi, and the driver called the company to return the device1 In scenario E, remote wipe capabilities would be used to prevent unauthorized access to the device and to protect sensitive data. In scenario F, remote wipe capabilities would be used to erase all data on the device before it is returned to the user.
Explanation:
Remote wipe capabilities are used to erase all data on a mobile device remotely. This can be useful in situations where a device is lost or stolen, or when sensitive data needs to be removed from a device. Remote wipe capabilities are most likely to be used in the following scenarios:
NEW QUESTION # 262
A Chief Executive Officer has learned that an exploit has been identified on the web server software, and a patch is not available yet. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Brute force
- C. On-path
- D. Zero day
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A zero-day attack is an attack that exploits a previously unknown vulnerability in a computer application, meaning that the attack occurs on "day zero" of awareness of the vulnerability Configuring AAA Services. Retrieved from
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-0/security/configuration/guide/sc40crsb
NEW QUESTION # 263
An application user received an email indicating the version of the application currently in use will no longer be sold. Users with this version of the application will no longer receive patches or updates either. Which of the following indicates a vendor no longer supports a product?
- A. AUP
- B. UAC
- C. EOL
- D. EULA
Answer: C
Explanation:
EOL (end-of-life) is a term that indicates a vendor no longer supports a product. It means that the product will no longer be sold, updated or patched by the vendor, and that the users should migrate to a newer version or alternative product. AUP (acceptable use policy), EULA (end-user license agreement) and UAC (user account control) are not terms that indicate a vendor no longer supports a product. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-end-of-life https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 264
A technician was assigned a help desk ticket and resolved the issue. Which of the following should the technician update to assist other technicians in resolving similar issues?
- A. End user training
- B. Progress notes
- C. Acceptable use policy document
- D. Knowledge base
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A knowledge base is a centralized repository of information that can be used by technicians to find solutions to common problems, best practices, troubleshooting guides, and other useful resources12. Updating the knowledge base with the details of the issue and the resolution can help other technicians who encounter similar issues in the future. It can also reduce the number of tickets and improve customer satisfaction3.
References1: The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Student Guide (Exam 220-1102), page 10-11 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives, page 13 3: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide, page 10-12
NEW QUESTION # 265
A systems administrator is experiencing Issues connecting from a laptop to the corporate network using PKI. Which to the following tools can the systems administrator use to help remediate the issue?
- A. lusrmgr.msc
- B. msconfig.exe
- C. perfmon.msc
- D. certmgr.msc
Answer: D
Explanation:
certmgr.msc is a tool that can be used to troubleshoot issues with PKI (public key infrastructure) on a Windows machine. It allows a system administrator to view, manage and import certificates, as well as check their validity, expiration and revocation status. msconfig.exe, lusrmgr.msc and perfmon.msc are other tools that can be used for different purposes on a Windows machine, but they are not related to PKI. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-certmgr-msc https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 266
A change advisory board did not approve a requested change due to the lack of alternative actions if implementation failed. Which of the following should be updated before requesting approval again?
- A. Scope of change
- B. Rollback plan
- C. End user acceptance
- D. Risk level
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 267
A user is being directed by the help desk to look up a Windows PC's network name so the help desk can use a remote administration tool to assist the user. Which of the following commands would allow the user to give the technician the correct information? (Select TWO).
- A. hostname
- B. arp -a
- C. nslookup localhost
- D. netstat /?
- E. ping :: 1
- F. ipconfig /all
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
Explanation
The user can use the following commands to give the technician the correct information: ipconfig
/all and hostname 1. The ipconfig /all command displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters on the computer 1. The hostname command displays the name of the computer 1.
NEW QUESTION # 268
A laptop that was in the evidence room of a police station is missing. Which of the following is the best reason to refer to chain of custody documentation?
- A. To alert the owner that the password needs to be changed.
- B. To remotely wipe sensitive data from the machine.
- C. To gather the information needed to replace the machine.
- D. To determine which party had the machine and when.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Chain of custody documentation is a record of the sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical or electronic evidence. It is important to maintain a chain of custody to ensure the integrity and authenticity of the evidence, and to prevent tampering or contamination. If a laptop that was in the evidence room of a police station is missing, the best reason to refer to chain of custody documentation is to determine which party had the machine and when. This can help to identify the possible suspects, locate the missing laptop, and verify if the evidence on the laptop was compromised or not
NEW QUESTION # 269
A systems administrator is configuring centralized desktop management for computers on a domain. The management team has decided that all users' workstations should have the same network drives, printers, and configurations. Which of the following should the administrator use to accomplish this task?
- A. User Accounts
- B. Group Policy
- C. regedit
- D. Network and Sharing Center
- E. net use
Answer: B
Explanation:
Group Policy is a feature of Windows that allows administrators to centrally manage and apply policies and settings to computers and users on a domain3. Group Policy can be used to configure network drives, printers, security settings, desktop preferences, and other configurations for all users' workstations3. Network and Sharing Center, net use, User Accounts, and regedit are not tools that can accomplish this task.
NEW QUESTION # 270
A system drive is nearly full, and a technician needs lo tree up some space. Which of the following tools should the technician use?
- A. Disk Management
- B. Disk Cleanup
- C. Disk Defragment
- D. Resource Monitor
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Disk Cleanup is a tool that can free up some space on a system drive that is nearly full. It can delete temporary files, cached files, recycle bin files, old system files and other unnecessary data. Resource Monitor is a tool that shows the network activity of each process on a Windows machine. Disk Defragment is a tool that optimizes the performance of a hard drive by rearranging the data into contiguous blocks. Disk Management is a tool that allows creating, formatting, resizing and deleting partitions on a hard drive. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-use-disk-cleanup https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 271
Following the latest Windows update PDF files are opening in Microsoft Edge instead of Adobe Reader. Which of the following utilities should be used to ensure all PDF files open in Adobe Reader?
- A. Add or Remove Programs
- B. Programs and Features
- C. Default Apps
- D. Network and Sharing Center
Answer: C
Explanation:
Default Apps should be used to ensure all PDF files open in Adobe Reader1
NEW QUESTION # 272
Upon downloading a new ISO, an administrator is presented with the following string:
59d15a16ce90cBcc97fa7c211b767aB
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this string?
- A. AES-256 verification
- B. Digital signature verification
- C. XSS verification
- D. Hash verification
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Hash verification is a process that verifies the integrity of a file by comparing the hash value of the downloaded file to the hash value provided by the source1
NEW QUESTION # 273
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