[May 22, 2024] CCSK Exam Dumps, CCSK Practice Test Questions
Free CCSK Study Guides Exam Questions and Answer
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is a non-profit organization that is committed to promoting the use of best practices for providing security assurance in cloud computing. The CSA has developed a comprehensive and vendor-neutral certification program called the Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) to help organizations and professionals in the IT industry gain a better understanding of cloud security concepts and best practices.
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is a global organization that is dedicated to promoting secure cloud computing practices. One of the key initiatives of the CSA is the Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) exam. The CCSK is a vendor-neutral certification that is designed to test an individual's understanding of cloud security best practices and principles. CCSK exam is based on the CSA's Cloud Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing, which is considered to be the industry's best practices for secure cloud computing.
NEW QUESTION # 31
The management plane controls and configures the:
- A. Infrastructure
- B. Applistructure
- C. Metastructure
- D. Infostructure
Answer: C
Explanation:
The management plane controls and configures the metastructure and is also part of the metastructure itself. As a reminder, cloud computing is the act of taking physical assets(like networks and processors)and using them to build resource pools. Metastructure is the glue and guts to create, provision, and de-provision the pools. The management plane includes the interfaces for building and managing the cloud itself, but also the interfaces for cloud users to manage their own allocated resources of the cloud.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 32
What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?
- A. A spill remediation kit
- B. A rainy day fund
- C. A communication plan
- D. A data destruction plan
- E. A back-up website
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 33
When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 34
CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?
GRM 06 - Policy GRM 07 - Policy Enforcement GRM 08 - Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 - Policy Reviews GRM 10 - Risk Assessments GRM 11 - Risk Management Framework
- A. Governance and Retention Management
- B. Governance and Risk Management
- C. Governing and Risk Metrics
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 35
Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed.
- A. Broad network access
- B. Resource pooling
- C. On-demand self-service
- D. Measured service
- E. Rapid elasticity
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?
- A. Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)
- B. Static Application Security Testing (SAST)
- C. Unit Testing
- D. Code Review
- E. Functional Testing
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is correct about Due Care & Due Diligence?
- A. Due care is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due Diligence is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.
- B. Due care is technical control whereas Due Deligence is physical control.
- C. None of the above definitions are correct.
- D. Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Definitions:
Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces.
Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company, its assets, and its people from threats
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is key benefit of private cloud model?
- A. Less expensive
- B. Distributed data location
- C. Off-loading IT Management
- D. Assurance of Data Location
Answer: D
Explanation:
One of the key challenges in cloud computing is its distributed environment and dispersed data centers across the globe. It is very difficult to trace data location in public clouds.
Therefore. Assurance of data location is key advantage of private cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 39
In a cloud scenario. who is the data processor and who is the data controller?
- A. Database admin is the data controller and application owner is the data processor
- B. Neither cloud service provider nor customer is data processor or data controller.
- C. Cloud Service Provider is the data controller and its customer is the data processor
- D. Cloud Service Provider is the data processor and its customer is the data controller
Answer: D
Explanation:
The customer determines the ultimate purpose of the processing and decides on the outsourcing or the delegation of all or part of the concerned activities to external organizations. Therefore, the customer acts as a controller.
When the service provider supplies the means and the platform, acting on behalf of the customer, it is considered to be a data processor.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?
- A. Application Programming Interface (API)
- B. Application Binary Interface (ABI)
- C. Extensible Markup Language (XML)
- D. Resource Description Framework (RDF)
- E. Software Development Kits (SDKs)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 41
Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 42
One of the primary benefits of the cloud is the ability to perform dynamic allocation of physical resources when required. The most common approach is a multi-tenant environment. However, it increases risk of disclosure of customer dat a. This can happen because of which of the following?
- A. Tenancy termination
- B. No disaster recovery plan
- C. Isolation Failure
- D. Increased DDoS
Answer: C
Explanation:
All resources allocated to a particular tenant should be "isolated" and protected to avoid disclosure of information to other tenants For example, when allocated storage is no longer needed IIS Security Considerations for Cloud Computing by a client it can be freely reallocated to another enterprise. ln that case, sensitive data could be disclosed if the storage has not been scrubbed thoroughly(e.g, using forensic software).
NEW QUESTION # 43
Inability of customer to leave, migrate, Or transfer to an alternate cloud service provider because of technical or nontechnical constraints. is known as:
- A. Vendor Limit
- B. Vendor Lock
- C. Vendor lock-out
- D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D
Explanation:
Vendor lock-in is a situation in which a customer using a product or service cannot easily transition to a competitor's product or service. Vendor lock-in is usually the result of proprietary technologies that are incompatible with those of competitors.
NEW QUESTION # 44
An incident in which sensitive, protected or confidential information is released, viewed, stolen or used by an individual who is not authorized to do so, is called:
- A. Data Denial
- B. Data Dispersion
- C. Data Breach
- D. Data Disclosure
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is the definition of Data breach. It should not be confused with data disclosure. The incident can lead to information disclosure but incident, itself, will be termed as Data Breach.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is not part of STRIDE model?
- A. Spoofing
- B. Distributed Denial of Service
- C. Denial of Service
- D. Elevation of Privilege
Answer: B
Explanation:
The letters in STRIDE threat model represent Spoofing of identity, Tampering with data, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, and Elevation of privilege. The other options are simply mixed up or incorrect versions of the same.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?
- A. Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.
- B. Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.
- C. Both B and C.
- D. Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.
- E. Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 47
What type of information is contained in the Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix?
- A. A list of cloud configurations including traffic logic and efficient routes
- B. The command and control management hierarchy of typical cloud company
- C. A number of requirements to be implemented, based upon numerous standards and regulatory requirements
- D. Network traffic rules for cloud environments
- E. Federal legal business requirements for all cloud operators
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following Standards define "Application Security Management Process" (ASMP)?
- A. ISO 27034-1
- B. ISO 27038-1
- C. ISO 27032-1
- D. ISO 27036-1
Answer: A
Explanation:
The International Organization for Standardization(ISO) has developed and published ISO/ IECN27034-1,
"Information Technology, eSecurity Techniques, eApplication Security, IS0/ IEC27034-1 defines concepts, frameworks, and processes to help organizations integrate security within their software development lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following controls and configures the metastructure, and is also part of the metastructure itself?
- A. API Gateway
- B. Web Application Firewall
- C. Network Firewall
- D. Management Plance
Answer: D
Explanation:
The management plane controls and configures the metastructure, and is also part of the metastructure itself. As a reminder, cloud computing is the act of taking physical assets (like networks and processors) and using them to build resource pools. Meta structure is the glue and guts to create, provision, and deprovision the pools. The management plane includes the interfaces for building and managing the cloud itself, but also the interfaces for cloud users to manage their own allocated resources of the cloud.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines v4.0
NEW QUESTION # 50
ln which of the following cloud service models is the customer required to maintain the operating system?
- A. PaaS
- B. Public Cloud
- C. SaaS
- D. IaaS
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to "The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing," in IaaS, "the capability provided to the consumer is to provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over OSs, storage, and deployed applications; and possibly limited control of select networking components (e.g, host firewalls)."
NEW QUESTION # 51
When virtual machines may communicate with each other over a hardware backplane, Rather than a network, It gives rise to:
- A. DDoS
- B. Multi-tenancy
- C. Inter VM attack
- D. Blind spot
Answer: D
Explanation:
It's the definition of Blind spot and it is very difficult to monitor this traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?
- A. Entitlement
- B. Federated Identity Management
- C. Authentication
- D. Access control
- E. Authoritative source
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is an assurance program and documentation registry for cloud provider assessments?
- A. CSA Cloud Controls Matrix
- B. CSA governance charter
- C. CSA Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire
- D. CSA Star
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cloud Security Alliance STAR Registry is an assurance program and documentation registry or cloud provider assessments based on the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix and Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire. Some providers also disclose documentation for additional certifications and assessments(including self-assessments).
Ref: Security Guidance v4.0 Copyright2017, Cloud Security Alliance(used for educational purpose here)
NEW QUESTION # 54
......
Cloud Security Alliance CCSK (Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge) Exam is a globally recognized certification that demonstrates an individual's knowledge and expertise in cloud security. The CCSK certification is designed for IT professionals, security practitioners, and cloud computing experts who want to validate their skills and knowledge in cloud security. The CCSK certification is vendor-neutral, meaning that it is not tied to any specific cloud platform or technology, and it covers a broad range of cloud security domains, including governance, risk management, compliance, architecture, and operations.
CCSK Exam Dumps, CCSK Practice Test Questions: https://www.pass4guide.com/CCSK-exam-guide-torrent.html
Attested CCSK Dumps PDF Resource [2024]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1ytBDJUBRlCjh0gX9sseftsPSKyIzt2vL