Pass4guide JN0-636 Dumps Real Exam Questions Test Engine Dumps Training [Q56-Q72]

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Pass4guide JN0-636 Dumps Real Exam Questions Test Engine Dumps Training

Juniper JN0-636 exam dumps and online Test Engine


Juniper JN0-636 Exam is a professional-level certification program that tests the skills and knowledge of security professionals in managing and configuring Juniper Networks security products. JN0-636 exam is comprehensive and covers a range of topics related to security policies, firewall security, virtual private networks (VPNs), intrusion prevention, unified threat management (UTM), and security management. JN0-636 exam is suitable for professionals who have at least three years of experience in network and security operations and want to become a certified Juniper Networks security expert.


Juniper JN0-636 Certification Exam is a professional-level certification exam that focuses on the security aspects of Juniper's solutions. JN0-636 exam covers a wide range of topics related to Juniper's security solutions and tests the candidate's ability to configure, manage, and troubleshoot them in a real-world environment. Security, Professional (JNCIP-SEC) certification is ideal for those who are looking to advance their careers in the security field and provides a competitive edge in the job market.

 

NEW QUESTION # 56
An administrator wants to configure an SRX Series device to log binary security events for tenant systems.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement would complete the configuration?

  • A. Configure the tenant as local for the pi security profile
  • B. Configure the tenant as master for the pi security profile.
  • C. Configure the tenant as TSYS1 for the pi security profile.
  • D. Configure the tenant as root for the pi security profile.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 57
You issue the command shown in the exhibit.
Which policy will be active for the identified traffic?

  • A. Policy p12
  • B. Policy p1
  • C. Policy p4
  • D. Policy p7

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 58
Exhibit

You configure a traceoptions file called radius on your returns the output shown in the exhibit What is the source of the problem?

  • A. The authentication order is misconfigured.
  • B. The RADIUS server IP address is unreachable.
  • C. The RADIUS server suffered a hardware failure.
  • D. An incorrect password is being used.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 59
You are using destination NAT to translate the address of your HTTPS server to a private address on your SRX Series device. You have decided to implement IDP SSL decryption.
Upon enabling the decryption, you notice sessions are not decrypted.
Which action resolves the problem?

  • A. Increase the SSLsession-id-cache-timeoutvalue to any value greater than 5000 seconds.
  • B. Replace the server SSL certificate to use the public address.
  • C. Enable the IDPsensor-configurationdetector to detect address translation.
  • D. Reboot the SRX Series device.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 60
Exhibit

The show network-access aaa radius-servers command has been issued to solve authentication issues.
Referring to the exhibit, to which two authentication servers will the SRX Series device continue to send requests? (ChooseTWO)

  • A. 192.168.30.191
  • B. 192.168.30.190
  • C. 200l:DB8:0:f101;:2
  • D. 192.168.30.188

Answer: A,D


NEW QUESTION # 61
Exhibit:
The security trace options configuration shown in the exhibit is committed to your SRX series firewall. Which two statements are correct in this Scenario? (Choose Two)

  • A. Once the trace has generated 10 log files, older logs will be overwritten.
  • B. The file debugger will be readable only by the user who committed this configuration
  • C. Once the trace has generated 10 log files, the trace process will halt.
  • D. The file debugger will be readable by all users.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The security trace options configuration shown in the exhibit is committed to your SRX series firewall. The following statements are correct in this scenario:
B) Once the trace has generated 10 log files, older logs will be overwritten. The files option in the traceoptions statement specifies the maximum number of trace files to keep. When a trace file reaches its maximum size, it is renamed with a numeric suffix, such as kmd.0, kmd.1, and so on, until the maximum number of files is reached. Then the oldest trace file is overwritten by the newest one. In this case, the files option is set to 10, which means that the trace will generate 10 log files and then overwrite the older ones1.
D) The file debugger will be readable only by the user who committed this configuration. The file option in the traceoptions statement specifies the name of the trace file and the permissions for the file. The permissions can be either world-readable or owner-readable. In this case, the file option is set to debugger owner-readable, which means that the trace file will be named debugger and will be readable only by the user who committed the configuration1.
The other statements are incorrect because:
A) The file debugger will not be readable by all users, but only by the user who committed this configuration, as explained above.
C) The trace will not halt after generating 10 log files, but will continue to overwrite the older ones, as explained above.
Reference:
traceoptions (Security)


NEW QUESTION # 62
According to the log shown in the exhibit, you notice the IPsec session is not establishing.
What is the reason for this behavior?

  • A. Mismatched preshared key
  • B. Incorrect peer address.
  • C. Mismatched peer ID
  • D. Mismatched proxy ID

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/release-independent/nce/topics/example/policy-based-vpn-using-j-series-srxseries-device-configuring.html


NEW QUESTION # 63
You are trying to get a SSH honeypot set up on a Juniper ATP Appliance collector. The collector is running on hardware with two physical interfaces and two physical CPU cores. The honeypot feature is not working.
Which statement is true in this scenario?

  • A. The collector must have at least four physical cores
  • B. The collector must have at least six physical cores
  • C. The collector must have at least three physical interfaces
  • D. The collector must have at least four physical interfaces

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 64
Click the Exhibit button.

Which type of NAT is shown in the exhibit?

  • A. NAT46
  • B. DS-Lite
  • C. persistent NAT
  • D. NAT64

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 65
You opened a support ticket with JTAC for your Juniper ATP appliance. JTAC asks you to set up access to the device using the reverse SSH connection.Which three setting must be configured to satisfy this request? (Choose three.)

  • A. Enable JTAC remote access
  • B. Create a temporary admin account.
  • C. Enable remote support.
  • D. Create a temporary root account.
  • E. Enable a JATP support account.

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:
https://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=TN326&cat=&actp=LIST&showDraft=false


NEW QUESTION # 66
Exhibit

You are using ATP Cloud and notice that there is a host with a high number of ETI and C&C hits sourced from the same investigation and notice that some of the events have not been automatically mitigated.
Referring to the exhibit, what is a reason for this behavior?

  • A. The infected host score is globally set above a threat level of 5.
  • B. The infected host score is globally set bellow a threat level of 5.
  • C. The C&C events are false positives.
  • D. The ETI events are false positives.

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation, the infected host score is a global setting that determines the minimum threat level required for a host to be considered infected and blocked by Juniper ATP Cloud. The infected host score can be configured from 1 to 10, where 1 is the lowest and 10 is the highest. The default infected host score is 5, which means that any host with a threat level of 5 or higher will be automatically blocked by Juniper ATP Cloud. However, the infected host score can be changed to a higher value, such as 6 or 7, to reduce the number of false positives and allow more traffic to pass through. In the exhibit, the host has a threat level of 5, which indicates that it is infected with malware and has attempted to contact command-and-control servers. However, some of the events have not been automatically mitigated, which means that the host has not been blocked by Juniper ATP Cloud. A possible reason for this behavior is that the infected host score is globally set above a threat level of 5, such as 6 or 7, which means that the host does not meet the minimum threshold for blocking. Therefore, the correct answer is C. The infected host score is globally set above a threat level of 5. Reference: [Configuring the Infected Host Score] 1, [Compromised Hosts: More Information] 2
1: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/us/en/software/sky-atp/atp-cloud-user-guide/topics/task/sky-atp-infected-host-score.html 2: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/us/en/software/sky-atp/atp-cloud-user-guide/topics/concept/sky-atp-infected-host-overview.html


NEW QUESTION # 67
Which three type of peer devices are supported for Cos-Based IPsec VPN?

  • A. vSRX
  • B. Branch-end SRX Series devics
  • C. High-end SRX Series device
  • D. cSRX

Answer: A,B,C


NEW QUESTION # 68
Exhibit

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?

  • A. This custom block list feed cannot be saved if the Juniper Seclntel block list feed is configured.
  • B. This custom block list feed will be used after the Juniper Seclntel block list feed.
  • C. This custom block list feed will be used instead of the Juniper Seclntel block list feed
  • D. This custom block list feed will be used before the Juniper Seclntel

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 69
You are using ATP Cloud and notice that there is a host with a high number of ETI and C&C hits sourced from the same investigation and notice that some of the events have not been automatically mitigated.
Referring to the exhibit, what is a reason for this behavior?

  • A. The infected host score is globally set bellow a threat level of 5.
  • B. The ETI events are false positives.
  • C. The infected host score is globally set above a threat level of 5.
  • D. The C&C events are false positives.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 70
Regarding IPsec CoS-based VPNs, what is the number of IPsec SAs associated with a peer based upon?

  • A. The number of CoS queues configured for the VPN.
  • B. The number of classifiers configured for the VPN.
  • C. The number of traffic selectors configured for the VPN.
  • D. The number of forwarding classes configured for the VPN.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In IPsec CoS-based VPNs, the number of IPsec Security Associations (SAs) associated with a peer is based on the number of forwarding classes configured for the VPN. The forwarding classes are used to classify and prioritize different types of traffic, such as voice and data traffic. Each forwarding class requires a separate IPsec SA to be established between the peers, in order to provide the appropriate level of security and quality of service for each type of traffic.


NEW QUESTION # 71
Click the Exhibit button.

Which type of NAT is shown in the exhibit?

  • A. NAT46
  • B. DS-Lite
  • C. persistent NAT
  • D. NAT64

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 72
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Juniper JN0-636: Security, Professional (JNCIP-SEC) exam is a professional-level certification exam that validates the candidate’s knowledge and skills in designing, implementing, configuring and troubleshooting Juniper Networks security solutions. Security, Professional (JNCIP-SEC) certification is a part of the Juniper Networks Certification Program that prepares IT professionals with advanced credentials in network security.

 

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