300-215 Certification Exam Dumps Questions in here [Mar-2026]
Updated 300-215 Exam Practice Test Questions
Nowadays, traditional information security seems to be incapable of mitigating the ever-evolving cybercrimes. Therefore, it is important to increase the level and efficiency of information security. The Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification validates the applicants’ expertise as an Information Security Analyst in incident Cloud security, response roles, and other active defense security roles. Those who want to obtain this certificate have to pass two exams. One of them is Cisco 300-215. This test measures the individuals’ knowledge of incident response fundamentals and forensic analysis as well as processes and techniques of mitigating cyber threats.
NEW QUESTION # 17
Refer to the exhibit.
A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts.
The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the engineer assign to this event?
- A. True Positive alert
- B. False Positive alert
- C. True Negative alert
- D. False Negative alert
Answer: B
Explanation:
The alert shown is based on aSnort rulefor aUnicode directory traversal attack against IIS web servers (Microsoft platform). The key detail here is the payload content"../..%c0%af../"which is a classic IIS-specific exploit related toCVE-2000-0884.
Since the company only usesUnix systems, they arenot vulnerableto this IIS-specific attack. Therefore, these alerts are triggered by irrelevant traffic or misapplied signatures, resulting inFalse Positives.
As defined in the Cisco CyberOps guide:
"False Positive: an alert is generated for traffic that is not actually malicious or relevant to the protected environment".
NEW QUESTION # 18
A website administrator has an output of an FTP session that runs nightly to download and unzip files to a local staging server. The download includes thousands of files, and the manual process used to find how many files failed to download is time-consuming. The administrator is working on a PowerShell script that will parse a log file and summarize how many files were successfully downloaded versus ones that failed. Which script will read the contents of the file one line at a time and return a collection of objects?
- A. Get-Content-Folder \\Server\FTPFolder\Logfiles\ftpfiles.log | Show-From "ERROR", "SUCCESS"
- B. Get-Content -ifmatch \\Server\FTPFolder\Logfiles\ftpfiles.log | Copy-Marked "ERROR", "SUCCESS"
- C. Get-Content -Path \\Server\FTPFolder\Logfiles\ftpfiles.log | Select-String "ERROR", "SUCCESS"
- D. Get-Content -Directory \\Server\FTPFolder\Logfiles\ftpfiles.log | Export-Result "ERROR", "SUCCESS"
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 19
A security team detected an above-average amount of inbound tcp/135 connection attempts from unidentified senders. The security team is responding based on their incident response playbook. Which two elements are part of the eradication phase for this incident? (Choose two.)
- A. anti-malware software
- B. data and workload isolation
- C. centralized user management
- D. enterprise block listing solution
- E. intrusion prevention system
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
The eradication phase in incident response involveseliminating the root cause of the incidentand strengthening defenses to prevent reoccurrence. In this case:
* Intrusion Prevention System (D): Adding new rules to the IPS to detect and block malicious activity on TCP/135 is a direct eradication step to remove the threat's entry point and prevent future attacks.
* Centralized User Management (C): Hardening user accounts, removing unnecessary permissions, and applying tighter authentication/authorization measures helps eliminate the possibility that threat actors could exploit weak or mismanaged accounts to continue accessing the system.
Althoughanti-malware software (A)andenterprise block listing (E)are valuable, themost direct eradication stepshere specifically involve managing network access (via IPS) and strengthening user controls (via centralized user management), especially when TCP/135 (MSRPC endpoint mapper) can be used to enumerate services and potentially access vulnerable endpoints remotely.
This aligns with best practices outlined in incident response frameworks (such as the NIST SP 800-61 and referenced resources), which emphasizeclosing the exploited entry points(in this case, TCP/135) and removing any lingering access pointsthrough user management and network control enhancements.
Reference:
CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Understanding the Incident Response Process, Eradication Phase, page 105-106.
External Reference: "The Core Phases of Incident Response - Remediation," Cipher blog [1].
External Reference: "Service Overview and Network Port Requirements," Microsoft documentation [2].
NEW QUESTION # 20
Refer to the exhibit.
What is occurring?
- A. An attacker attempted SQL injection.
- B. WAF detected code injection.
- C. The request was redirected.
- D. The requested page was not found.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The log entry contains the following key elements:
* The timestamp:(04/Jan/2022:20:18:06 +0000)
* HTTP method and URI:"GET /%60%60%60%60%60%60/ HTTP/2.0"
* HTTP status code:404
* User-Agent:Mozilla/5.0 ... Firefox/95.0
The status code404indicates that the requested resource was not found on the server. This is a standard HTTP response that signifies the server could not locate the requested URI (in this case, likely due to a malformed or invalid path/\`````/, where%60is the URL-encoded form of the backtick character "").
There is no clear evidence of SQL injection, WAF detection, or redirection in this log. The use of encoded backticks may suggest probing behavior, but the log does not show a definitive attack signature.
Therefore, the correct interpretation is:
D: The requested page was not found.
NEW QUESTION # 21
An organization recovered from a recent ransomware outbreak that resulted in significant business damage.
Leadership requested a report that identifies the problems that triggered the incident and the security team's approach to address these problems to prevent a reoccurrence. Which components of the incident should an engineer analyze first for this report?
- A. motive and factors
- B. risk and RPN
- C. cause and effect
- D. impact and flow
Answer: C
Explanation:
To prepare a post-incident report, thecauseof the incident (what enabled it) and theeffect(what damage was done) are the primary components analyzed first. This allows teams to understand vulnerabilities exploited and the consequences, forming the basis for corrective action.
The Cisco CyberOps guide recommends beginning withroot cause analysisfollowed by impact assessment to guide future prevention strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 22
An investigator is analyzing an attack in which malicious files were loaded on the network and were undetected. Several of the images received during the attack include repetitive patterns. Which anti- forensic technique was used?
- A. tunneling
- B. obfuscation
- C. spoofing
- D. steganography
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://doi.org/10.5120/1398-1887
https://www.carbonblack.com/blog/steganography-in-the-modern-attack-landscape/
NEW QUESTION # 23
Over the last year, an organization's HR department has accessed data from its legal department on the last day of each month to create a monthly activity report. An engineer is analyzing suspicious activity alerted by a threat intelligence platform that an authorized user in the HR department has accessed legal data daily for the last week. The engineer pulled the network data from the legal department's shared folders and discovered above average-size data dumps. Which threat actor is implied from these artifacts?
- A. malicious insider
- B. external exfiltration
- C. internal user errors
- D. privilege escalation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 24
Drag and drop the steps from the left into the order to perform forensics analysis of infrastructure networks on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 25
An organization recovered from a recent ransomware outbreak that resulted in significant business damage. Leadership requested a report that identifies the problems that triggered the incident and the security team's approach to address these problems to prevent a reoccurrence. Which components of the incident should an engineer analyze first for this report?
- A. motive and factors
- B. cause and effect
- C. risk and RPN
- D. impact and flow
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 26 
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is analyzing a Wireshark file to determine the HTTP request that caused the initial Ursnif banking Trojan binary to download. Which filter did the engineer apply to sort the Wireshark traffic logs?
- A. tcp.port eq 25
- B. tls.handshake.type ==1
- C. http.request.un matches
- D. tcp.window_size ==0
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.malware-traffic-analysis.net/2018/11/08/index.html
https://unit42.paloaltonetworks.com/wireshark-tutorial-examining-ursnif-infections/
NEW QUESTION # 27
An engineer is analyzing a ticket for an unexpected server shutdown and discovers that the web-server ran out of useable memory and crashed.
Which data is needed for further investigation?
- A. /var/log/access.log
- B. /var/log/messages.log
- C. /var/log/httpd/access.log
- D. /var/log/httpd/messages.log
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most relevant log for system-level events such as memory exhaustion and shutdown is/var/log/messages.
log, which contains kernel and service-level logs including OOM (Out-Of-Memory) events.
As detailed in Linux investigations:
"Logs located in/var/log/messagesprovide critical system error reporting including shutdowns, memory errors, and service failures".
NEW QUESTION # 28
A security team detected an above-average amount of inbound tcp/135 connection attempts from unidentified senders. The security team is responding based on their incident response playbook. Which two elements are part of the eradication phase for this incident? (Choose two.)
- A. anti-malware software
- B. data and workload isolation
- C. centralized user management
- D. enterprise block listing solution
- E. intrusion prevention system
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 29
What is the steganography anti-forensics technique?
- A. hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file
- B. changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type
- C. sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation
- D. concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places
Answer: D
Explanation:
Steganography is the anti-forensics technique of hiding malicious content within seemingly innocent files, such as image, audio, or video files. The goal is to conceal data or code in a way that avoids suspicion and detection, thereby making traditional security inspection tools ineffective unless they are explicitly designed to detect hidden data within media files.
Steganography differs from encryption because it does not simply make data unreadable; it hides the existence of the data itself. It is commonly used in cyber operations to hide command-and-control instructions or to exfiltrate sensitive information in covert ways.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Evasion and Obfuscation Techniques, Anti-Forensics, Steganography Section.
NEW QUESTION # 30
A security team received reports of users receiving emails linked to external or unknown URLs that are non- returnable and non-deliverable. The ISP also reported a 500% increase in the amount of ingress and egress email traffic received. After detecting the problem, the security team moves to the recovery phase in their incident response plan. Which two actions should be taken in the recovery phase of this incident? (Choose two.)
- A. request packet capture
- B. verify the breadth of the attack
- C. collect logs
- D. remove vulnerabilities
- E. scan hosts with updated signatures
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
In therecovery phase, the goal is to restore affected systems to normal operations and ensure the threat has been completely eradicated. According to the CyberOps Associate guide:
"This phase may include restoring data from clean backups, replacing compromised systems, and the re- installation of the Operating System (OS) and applications".
Also:
"During recovery, scanning hosts with updated antivirus and removing vulnerabilities ensures systems do not get reinfected".
NEW QUESTION # 31
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of code created the snippet?
- A. Python
- B. PowerShell
- C. VB Script
- D. Bash Script
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 32
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two determinations should be made about the attack from the Apache access logs? (Choose two.)
- A. The attacker logged on normally to WordPress admin page.
- B. The attacker uploaded the WordPress file manager trojan.
- C. The attacker used the WordPress file manager plugin to upload r57.php.
- D. The attacker performed a brute force attack against WordPress and used SQL injection against the backend database.
- E. The attacker used r57 exploit to elevate their privilege.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The Apache access logs in the exhibit show a sequence of HTTP requests and responses indicative of a malicious upload via WordPress:
* A POST to:
* /wp-admin/admin-ajax.php with parameters that include uploading r57.php (a known PHP web shell).
* The uploaded file name appears as r57.php in:# &name=%5B%5D=r57.php&FILES...
* There are plugin installation and activation attempts, specifically for:
* file-manager plugin:# plugin=file-manager&...
* Which is known to be vulnerable and exploited for file uploads.
* GET requests to:
* /wp-content/57.php and variations such as 57.php?28 - This suggests that r57.php was successfully uploaded and is being accessed.
These logs reveal that:
* D. The attacker used the WordPress file manager plugin to upload r57.php - confirmed by plugin activity and file uploads.
* B. The attacker uploaded the WordPress file manager trojan - as evidenced by the direct access to /wp- content/57.php (r57 shell variant).
Other options are invalid or speculative:
* A is correct in identifying r57 as a web shell, but the logs don't show privilege escalation.
* C mentions brute force and SQL injection, which are not indicated here.
* E assumes legitimate access - logs suggest exploitation, not standard login.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on "Analyzing HTTP and Apache Logs for Intrusion Behavior" and "Common CMS Exploits via Plugins and Upload
NEW QUESTION # 33
An engineer is analyzing a DoS attack and notices that the perpetrator used a different IP address to hide their system IP address and avoid detection. Which anti-forensics technique did the perpetrator use?
- A. spoofing
- B. cache poisoning
- C. encapsulation
- D. onion routing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Using adifferent IP addressto disguise the origin of an attack is the definition ofIP spoofing.
"Spoofing involves falsifying data, such as IP or MAC addresses, to hide the source of malicious activity." - Cisco CyberOps guide
NEW QUESTION # 34
In a secure government communication network, an automated alert indicates the presence of anomalous DLL files injected into the system memory during a routine update of communication protocols. These DLL files are exhibiting beaconing behavior to a satellite IP known for signal interception risks. Concurrently, there is an uptick in encrypted traffic volumes that suggests possible data exfiltration. Which set of actions should the security engineer prioritize?
- A. Invoke a classified incident response scenario, notify national defense cyber operatives, and begin containment and eradication procedures on affected systems.
- B. Sever connections to the satellite IP, execute a rollback of the recent protocol updates, and engage counter-intelligence cybersecurity measures.
- C. Conduct memory forensics to analyze the suspicious DLL files, disrupt the beaconing sequence, and assess the encrypted traffic for breach indicators.
- D. Activate a secure emergency communication channel, isolate the segments of the communication network, and initiate a threat hunting operation for further anomalies.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In highly sensitive environments such as secure government networks, the presence of anomalous DLL injection, beaconing to known interception points, and signs of encrypted data exfiltration constitutes a critical incident. The appropriate response in such classified contexts involves:
* Invoking a pre-established, classified incident response protocol,
* Immediately notifying national cyber defense operatives (such as national CERT or military cyber command),
* Prioritizing containment to stop lateral spread,
* Proceeding with eradication of malware or backdoors.
This response sequence aligns with the high-severity, immediate-response model described in the Cisco CyberOps Associate v1.2 curriculum under national defense and classified incident frameworks. The study guide emphasizes the importance of stakeholder communication and multi-agency coordination during advanced persistent threat (APT) intrusions involving critical infrastructure or defense systems.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Critical Infrastructure and Advanced Threat Response, Incident Response Phases for Government Systems.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A threat intelligence report identifies an outbreak of a new ransomware strain spreading via phishing emails that contain malicious URLs. A compromised cloud service provider, XYZCloud, is managing the SMTP servers that are sending the phishing emails. A security analyst reviews the potential phishing emails and identifies that the email is coming from XYZCloud. The user has not clicked the embedded malicious URL.
What is the next step that the security analyst should take to identify risk to the organization?
- A. Find any other emails coming from the IP address ranges that are managed by XYZCloud.
- B. Delete email from user mailboxes and update the incident ticket with lessons learned.
- C. Reset the reporting user's account and enable multifactor authentication.
- D. Create a detailed incident report and share it with top management.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Since the phishing email originates from a known compromised cloud provider (XYZCloud), the correct immediate action for the security analyst is to determine the broader scope of exposure. This involves checking whether other users in the organization received similar emails from the same potentially malicious source. Therefore, querying for emails from theIP address rangesorSMTP domainslinked to XYZCloud is essential for identifying other possible attack vectors.
This step aligns with the containment phase of the incident response lifecycle, as outlined in theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, where threat hunting and log analysis are used to determine the extent of compromise and prevent lateral movement or further exposure. Only after the scope is understood should remediation or reporting actions follow.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Email-Based Threats and Containment Strategy during Incident Response.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A cybersecurity analyst is examining a complex dataset of threat intelligence information from various sources. Among the data, they notice multiple instances of domain name resolution requests to suspicious domains known for hosting C2 servers. Simultaneously, the intrusion detection system logs indicate a series of network anomalies, including unusual port scans and attempts to exploit known vulnerabilities. The internal logs also reveal a sudden increase in outbound network traffic from a specific internal host to an external IP address located in a high-risk region. Which action should be prioritized by the organization?
- A. Organization should focus on C2 communication attempts and the sudden increase in outbound network traffic via a specific host.
- B. Threat intelligence information should be marked as false positive because unnecessary alerts impact security key performance indicators.
- C. Focus should be applied toward attempts of known vulnerability exploitation because the attacker might land and expand quickly.
- D. Data on ports being scanned should be collected and SSL decryption on Firewall enabled to capture the potentially malicious traffic.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guidecurriculum, command-and-control (C2) communication is a strong indicator that a system has already been compromised and is actively under the control of an attacker. Sudden outbound traffic to high-risk regions and resolution of known malicious domains are high-confidence signs of an active threat. Therefore, prioritizing detection and disruption of this outbound traffic is critical to prevent further damage or data exfiltration.
While monitoring vulnerability exploitation (B) and gathering port scan data (D) are also valuable, they are more preventive or forensic in nature. The most immediate threat-and therefore the top priority-is stopping active C2 communications.
NEW QUESTION # 37
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Cisco 300-215 certification exam is designed for professionals who are interested in validating their skills in conducting forensic analysis and incident response using Cisco technologies for CyberOps. 300-215 exam is aimed at individuals who work in the field of cybersecurity and want to demonstrate their expertise in incident response and forensic analysis using Cisco technologies. Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps certification exam is the perfect way to demonstrate your knowledge and skills in this field.
Cisco 300-215 exam focuses on assessing the candidate's understanding of the various types of cyber threats and how to identify them. It also tests the candidate's ability to analyze and respond to incidents using Cisco technologies, such as the Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) and the Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) system. 300-215 exam is designed to validate the candidate's ability to work in a real-world environment and respond to incidents quickly and effectively.
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