Real AACN PCCN Exam Questions Study Guide
Updated and Accurate PCCN Questions for passing the exam Quickly
AACN PCCN exam consists of 125 multiple-choice questions, and test-takers have three hours to complete the exam. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, endocrine, gastrointestinal, hematologic, neurological, and multisystem disorders. PCCN exam also includes questions on patient care management, ethical and legal issues, and patient/family education. PCCN exam is computer-based and is administered by the AACN Certification Corporation.
AACN PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nursing) Certification Exam is designed for registered nurses who work with acutely ill patients in progressive care settings. Progressive Care Certified Nursing certification exam is intended to validate the skills and knowledge required to provide high-quality care to patients with complex healthcare needs. Nurses who pass PCCN exam are recognized as experts in their field and are equipped with the tools necessary to improve patient outcomes.
AACN PCCN exam is an important credential for nurses who want to advance their careers in progressive care nursing. Those who earn the certification are recognized as experts in their field and are valued for their ability to provide high-quality patient care in a challenging and dynamic healthcare environment.
NEW QUESTION # 23
If a patient is anemic, then what do you expect in the cardiovascular examination of the patient?
- A. Third heart sound
- B. Murmurs
- C. Gallop rhythm
- D. All of above
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: In cardiovascular examination of the anemic patient, murmurs will be there because the viscosity of blood is decreased in anemia, which results in decreased peripheral resistance. So, more blood is pumped into the heart, and this increased flow can cause turbulence that result in heart murmurs.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Ketones accumulate in the blood when which of the following are being broken down faster than they can be metabolized?
- A. Triglycerides
- B. Fats
- C. Proteins
- D. Complex carbohydrates
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Fats
Ketones accumulate in the blood when fats are being broken down faster than they can be metabolized.
When insulin is not available, glucose cannot enter cells. This triggers a mobilization of stored glucose via the breakdown of protein and fat and the release of stored glucose from the liver. Ketones are given off when fat is broken down for energy. If the ketogenic pathway is overwhelmed, ketone acids accumulate in the bloodstream where hydrogen ions (H+) dissociate, leading to a profound metabolic acidosis.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 389.
NEW QUESTION # 25
In collaboration process, the level one nurse activity is:
- A. none of the above
- B. taking leadership role in collaborative activities
- C. Apart from participating in collaboration, actively seeking learning opportunity
- D. Mentoring others, seeking additional resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: None of these items are part of a collaborative process. Performance improvement processes needs organizational change, and resistance to change is common for many people. So the coordinating collaborative processes need anticipating resistance and taking steps to achieve cooperation. Resistance often relates to concerns about their job loss and increased responsibilities.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Anemia is defined as:
- A. A hemoglobin count less than 10 g/dL
- B. A hemoglobin count less than 12 g/dL
- C. A hemoglobin count less than 10 g/dL with at least one of the following symptoms: Shortness of breath on exertion, hematocrit less than 33%, and/or pallor of the skin and mucous membranes
- D. A hemoglobin count less than 8 g/dL with hematocrit less than 33%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: A hemoglobin count less than 12 g/dL
Anemia is defined as a hemoglobin count less than 12 g/dL. Signs and symptoms of anemia may include shortness of breath on exertion, progressing to dyspnea at rest. Pallor may also be a symptom and hematocrit may also be decreased; however, these are not included in the definition of anemia.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 326.
NEW QUESTION # 27
In renal replacement therapy, the process by which substrates move from an area of high concentration to one of a lesser concentration is known as:
- A. Osmosis
- B. Convection
- C. Diffusion
- D. Filtration
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Diffusion
In renal replacement therapy, the process by which substrates move from an area of high concentration to one of a lesser concentration is known as diffusion. Diffusion is used for removing small waste molecules (also known as solutes) during hemodialysis. In renal replacement therapy, blood flows through the hollow fibers of the dialyzer, and a cleansing fluid (dialysate solution), flows in the opposite direction (See Image). This configuration maximizes the removal of wastes. Throughout this process, the waste molecules move from a higher concentration in the blood to a lower concentration in the dialysate.
Through osmosis, water from an area of lesser solute concentration moves to an area of greater solute concentrate, becoming a part of the filtrate. Convection involves the movement of fluids and solutes being pushed through a membrane by pressure and creating a drag, which pulls larger particles along with the fluid. Filtration is the process that occurs which allows for movement of water and solute as a result of a difference in hydrostatic pressure.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 382.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is the antidote for calcium channel blockers?
- A. N-acetylcysteine
- B. Glucagon and calcium
- C. Vitamin K
- D. Sodium bicarbonate and glucagon
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Glucagon and calcium
Glucagon and calcium is the antidote for beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers.
Sodium bicarbonate is the antidote for tricycle antidepressants; Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin; N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 289.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Autonomic dysreflexia results most often due to:
- A. An overdistended bladder
- B. Pain
- C. A full rectum
- D. Infection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: An overdistended bladder
Autonomic dysreflexia results from a variety of stimuli; the most common of these is an overdistended bladder.
Other stimuli which can result in autonomic dysreflexia include:
* Infection
* A full rectum
* Skin stimulation
* Pain
* Pressure injuries
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 510.
NEW QUESTION # 30
To evaluate functional capacity as evidence of the patient's ability to reason about his or her own choices, which of the comments or questions would be the best for the nurse to make/ask?
- A. "Please tell me about some of the difficult health care choices you have made in the past."
- B. "Why are you in the hospital?"
- C. "What is the name of your doctor?"
- D. "Do you know what day it is?"
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: "Please tell me about some of the difficult health care choices you have made in the past." In answering open-ended questions, the patient with adequate functional capacity will demonstrate the ability to reason about his or her own choices. Questions based on orientation to place, time or situation do not guarantee the patient understands or comprehends the relevant information.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 200.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Chest tubes are often used in the acutely ill to drain air, fluid, or blood from the mediastinum (mediastinal tubes) or the pleural spaces (pleural tubes). If fluid is to be removed from the pleural space, where would the nurse expect the chest tube to be inserted?
- A. Fifth or sixth intercostal space; midclavicular line
- B. Second intercostal space; midaxillary line
- C. Second intercostal space; midclavicular line
- D. Fifth or sixth intercostal space; midaxillary line
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Fifth or sixth intercostal space; midaxillary line
Pleural tube insertion sites vary based on the type of drainage to be removed. If fluid is to be removed from the pleural space, the chest tube is inserted in the fifth or sixth ICS; midaxillary line.
If air is to be removed from the pleural space, chest tubes are inserted in the second intercostal space (ICS); midclavicular line.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 251.
NEW QUESTION # 32
An old man was on ventilator support because of his worsening pulmonary edema. In spite of the ventilator's support, after a few days the patient's condition further deteriorated. He became breathless and complained of pain in left side of chest. Chest x-ray revealed mediastinal shift towards right and pneumothorax right. What has suddenly happened to the patient?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. COPD
- C. Ventilator induced lung injury
- D. Pulmonary emphysema
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The patient has experienced a ventilator induced lung injury. The patient with worsening pulmonary edema and breathlessness, and whose x-ray revealed mediastinal shift towards right and pneumothorax right, has suddenly developed ventilator induced lung injury. This occurs because of continuous positive pressure. Sometimes the pleural sac ruptures and a pneumothorax and mediastinal shift occur.
NEW QUESTION # 33
What findings should you expect in a Blood complete picture report of patient with Diverticulitis?
- A. Anemia
- B. Lymphocytosis
- C. Leukocytosis
- D. Leucopenia
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: In a blood complete picture report of patient with Diverticulitis, one should expect leukocytosis. Diverticulosis is a condition when there is a sac like pouch of the bowel lining event from the muscle layer of the GIT tract. When it is infected it becomes diverticulitis and in its Blood complete picture report of patient with Diverticulitis, Leukocytosis is seen as Diverticulitis occurs when diverticula is infected.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which one of the following laboratory pictures is true for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. All of the above
- B. Prolonged prothrombin and partial prothrombin times
- C. Decreased fibrinogen
- D. Decreased platelet counts and fragmented RBCs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: All of the above are true for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a secondary disorder which has different reasons such as any trauma, congenital heart disease, necrotizing enterocolitis, sepsis, and severe viral infections. Its onset is rapid.
All the laboratory pictures listed are true for DIC.
NEW QUESTION # 35
All of the following statements related to clevidipine are true except:
- A. The maximum recommended dose of clevidipine is 32 mg/hour
- B. Continuous infusion dose is 1 to 2 mg/hour, increased by doubling dose every 90-second intervals initially to achieve blood pressure reduction
- C. Vials of clevidipine and IV tubing must be changed every 12 hours during therapy
- D. The oral dose is typically used as maintenance hypertension therapy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: The oral dose is typically used as maintenance hypertension therapy Clevidipine is an IV calcium channel blocker that is also indicated for the treatment of hypertension. It is not available in an oral dosage form.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 174.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Auto-PEEP (positive end-expiratory pressure) can be minimized by:
- A. Auto-PEEP is intrinsic; there is no way to minimize its occurrence
- B. Using smaller diameter endotracheal tubes
- C. Decreasing inspiratory flow rates
- D. Avoiding overventilation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Avoiding overventilation
Auto-PEEP, also known as intrinsic PEEP, occurs when a delivered breath is incompletely exhaled before the onset of the next inspiration. This gas-trapping increases the risk for complications from PEEP.
Ventilator patients with COPD or high respiratory rates are at increased risk for the development of auto-PEEP.
Auto-PEEP can be minimized by maximizing the length of time for expiration (e.g., increasing, rather than decreasing, inspiratory flow rates); using larger, rather than smaller, diameter endotracheal tubes to decrease obstructions to expiratory flow; and avoiding overventilation.
Reference:
B
urns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 123.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A 60 years old known diabetic for last 15 years presented in medical OPD with weight loss, muscle cramping, headaches and general malaise. He also had anemia which was not responding to typical anti anemic. His BUN and creatinine was also raised when investigated. What is he suffering from most likely?
- A. Acute renal failure
- B. Nephritic syndrome
- C. End Stage Renal disease
- D. Nephritic syndrome
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The patient is suffering from end stage renal disease as diabetes is one of the commonest causes of end stage renal disease. Moreover high BUN and creatinine are confirming the damage to the kidneys. Anemia is also there due to decreased erythropoietin production from damaged kidneys.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which is the key quality concept below?
- A. All the above
- B. Accessibility
- C. Respect
- D. Coordination
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: All the qualities listed are part of the key quality concept. All the key concepts related to quality must be communicated to the members of the organization through workshops, newsletters, fact sheets, general meetings.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A patient with severe variceal bleeding is to undergo a percutaneous transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt. The nurse is explaining the procedure to the patient's family. She tells the family:
- A. The advantage of this procedure is that it is not as invasive as surgery
- B. A common side effect of this procedure is dumping syndrome
- C. Another name for this procedure is the Billroth II
- D. This is a painless procedure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: The advantage of this procedure is that it is not as invasive as surgery The advantage of this procedure, which is also called the TIPS procedure, is that it is not as invasive as surgery as portal circulation is accessed by way of the right jugular vein. To decrease pressure in the portal vein (and therefore, decreased portal pressure), a stent is used to create a shunt between a branch of the portal vein and the hepatic vein. Decreasing portal pressure decreases pressure on the varices to prevent rupture and hemorrhage.
Dumping syndrome is associated with the Billroth I procedure, not with the TIPS procedure. Also called rapid gastric emptying, dumping syndrome occurs when the undigested contents of the stomach move too rapidly into the small bowel. The Billroth II is a surgical gastric resection procedure. It is often indicated in refractory peptic ulcer disease and gastric adenocarcinoma. Parts of the TIPS procedure can be painful, such as the balloon dilation of the intrahepatic tract. Pain medication and IV sedation are administered during the procedure.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 347-348.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A known hypertensive presented with the features of stroke. His systolic blood pressure was 190 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure was 120 mm of Hg. What is the next thing that should be done?
- A. Immediately give SK
- B. Monitor the blood pressure and wait until it drops to normal
- C. Immediately drop the blood pressure
- D. Immediately give t-PA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The next thing that should be done is to monitor the blood pressure and wait until it drops to normal. A known hypertensive with stroke features should not receive a blood thinner because it may result in additional hemorrhagic stroke. It is always better to wait and check as the blood pressure drops; then inform the doctor.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A client with a left-sided heart failure is prescribed with digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Which of the following signs and symptoms alerts the nurse for a possible occurrence of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Muscle twitching
- C. Leg cramps
- D. A positive Trousseau's sign
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Hypokalemia increases the client's risk for digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia is manifested by absent leg cramps and muscle weakness. Option A and D indicate hypocalcemia. Option C indicates hyperkalemia.
NEW QUESTION # 42
In electrocardiogram, the wave that represents ventricular muscle repolarization is the:
- A. U wave
- B. P wave
- C. ST segment
- D. T wave
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: T wave
The T wave on electrocardiogram represents ventricular muscle repolarization. It follows the QRS complex and is usually in the same direction as the QRS complex. T waves can be upright, flat or inverted depending on many factors, including the presence of myocardial disease or ischemia, electrolyte levels, drug effect, and the lead being recorded.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 39.
NEW QUESTION # 43
......
Prepare Important Exam with PCCN Exam Dumps: https://www.pass4guide.com/PCCN-exam-guide-torrent.html
Download Real PCCN Exam Dumps for candidates. 100% Free Dump Files: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1lMu8jTDkFBfvogm6yJMv7kiWdKAQBNmY