Get 100% Authentic SHRM SHRM-CP Dumps with Correct Answers
New Training Course SHRM-CP Tutorial Preparation Guide
SHRM-CP certification is highly respected in the HR industry and is recognized by employers worldwide. Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional certification demonstrates that the candidate has the knowledge and skills required to perform effectively in HR roles and is committed to professional development. Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional certification also provides opportunities for professional growth and advancement, as well as access to a network of HR professionals through SHRM membership. Overall, the SHRM-CP Certification Exam is an excellent way for HR professionals to validate their skills and knowledge and advance their careers.
To be eligible to take the SHRM-CP exam, candidates must have a minimum of a bachelor's degree and at least three years of experience in the field of human resources. Alternatively, candidates with a master's degree in HR and one year of experience are also eligible to take the exam.
Topics of SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Exam
Candidates must know the exam topics before they start of preparation. because it will really help them in hitting the core. Our SHRM SHRM-CP exam dumps will include the following topics:
Module 1: Define
Introduction to SHRM
- DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control) methodology overview
- Project charter
- Objective primary and secondary metrics
- Problem statement
- SIPOC (supplier, input, process, output, customer)
- Voice of the customer (VOC)
- CTx (quality, time, cost)
- Need for SHRM
- Examples of SHRM results
Module 2 : Measure
Fishbone diagram
Types of data
OEE (overall equipment effectiveness)
Kanbans, work cells
Lean concepts
Seven forms of waste
Sampling and data collection
Crossed versus nested designs
Attribute Gage R&R
5S (sort, straighten, shine, standardize, sustain) and visual management
Sampling bias
Scatterplot
Value stream, flow
Dot plot
Range, interquartile range, variance, standard deviation
Pareto chart
Rolled throughput yield (RTY), defect per unit (DPU), defects per million opportunities (DPMO), Sigma level (including shift)
Destructive testing
Basic statistics and probability
Sampling techniques: random, stratified random, systematic, rational subgrouping
Process distributions
Measurement system analysis
Binomial and Poisson capability analysis
Process stability
Sample versus population
Graphical tools
Boxplot
Process mapping
Batch versus single-piece flow
Confidence intervals
Normal distribution
Non-normal capability analysis
Histogram
Mean, median, mode
Normal capability analysis (Cp, Cpk, CPM, Pp, Ppk)
Time series plot
Variable gage R&R
Percentiles
Binomial, Poisson
Central limit theorem
Module 3 : Analyze
- Test for equal variance
- One-sample sign
- Anderson-Darling normality test
- Multi-vari analysis
- Two-sample t-test
- Inferential probability distributions
- One-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)
- Multiple regression
- Correlation and regression
- Chi-squared contingency table
- Two-proportion test
- One-sample test for variation
- Paired t-test
- Two-sample Poisson rate
- One-proportion test
- One-sample Poisson rate
- Design of experiments (DOE) strategies
- Normal
Module 4 : improve
- Self-inspection
- Value stream mapping
- Load charts/line balancing
- Lean measures of time: lead time, takt time, completion time, cycle time
- Theory of constraints
- Spaghetti chart
Module 5 : Control
- Xbar-S charts
- U-charts
- P-charts
NEW QUESTION # 17
An unfair labor practice (ULP) is defined as
- A. Discrimination against employees and union representatives during a strike
- B. Restraint that employers use to prevent employees from unionizing
- C. Participating in strikes or boycotts that are prohibited by law
- D. Activity from employer or union that hinders employees from exercising rights
- E. Any type of coercion on the part of employers against unions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: An unfair labor practice is defined as any activity from an employer or a union that hinders employees from exercising their rights. Answer choices A, B, D, and E are incorrect. While they describe types of unfair labor practices, they fail to provide a complete definition of ULP. Each offers a type of unfair labor practice, but does not encompass the total definition.
NEW QUESTION # 18
According to Marcus Buckingham and Curt Coffman in First, Break All the Rules, which of the following is not one of the four factors that help to create eager and content employees?
- A. Create clear goals for all employees and provide rewards for completed goals
- B. Identify potential employees who demonstrate versatility and a combination of KSAs (knowledge, skills, and abilities)
- C. Terminate employees who fail to connect with other members of the team
- D. Locate the most advantageous work situation for each employee
- E. Focus on the strengths of each employee and encourage individual growth
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Marcus Buckingham and Curt Coffman's First, Break All the Rules takes a positive approach to improving the situation for employees; terminating an employee would not necessarily create a positive situation. Instead, Buckingham and Coffman suggest that a human resources professional work on the steps provided in answer choices B, C, D, and E, which are creating goals, focusing on individual employee strengths, identifying employee KSAs, and locating the most advantageous work situation for employees.
NEW QUESTION # 19
A labor union must deal with several different employers. The union decides to negotiate with the employers one at a time, hoping to achieve successively better deals. What strategy is this union using?
- A. integrative bargaining
- B. positional bargaining D.
multiunit bargaining - C. parallel bargaining
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: This labor union is using a parallel bargaining strategy. Parallel bargaining is often used when the union believes that one particular employer will agree to an especially favorable deal. By negotiating this deal first, the union can set a standard that other employers will reluctantly meet. In the integrative bargaining approach, the union and employers lay all the facts on the table and compromise. In positional bargaining, the union and the employer are adversaries, each side using its leverage to get as much as possible. In multiunit bargaining, a single employer must deal with multiple unions representing different job groups.
NEW QUESTION # 20
The Hierarchy of Needs Theory (1954) is attributed to which of the following researchers?
- A. Victor Vroom
- B. Clayton Alderfer
- C. Abraham Maslow
- D. Fredrick Herzberg
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The Hierarchy of Needs Theory of 1954, which discusses the relationship between an employee and his job and which is also the starting point for many of the other theorists, is attributed to Abraham Maslow. Fredrick Herzberg is credited with the Motivation/Hygiene Theory of 1959; Clayton Alderfer is responsible for the ERG Theory of 1969; Victor Vroom is credited with the Expectancy Theory of 1964.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of stress identified by Dr. Hans Selye?
- A. exhaustion
- B. withdrawal
- C. arousal
- D. resistance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Withdrawal is not one of the stages of stress identified by Dr. Hans Selye. According to his model, the human response to stress passes through three distinct stages. At first, the body responds to stress by arousing the nervous system. During this stage, a person may be anxious or forgetful. During the resistance stage, the person will feel tired and indifferent, and may be unwilling to socialize. In the final phase, exhaustion, the body is worn out from fighting stress, and behavior becomes erratic.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which piece of federal legislation made it illegal to discharge an employee after only one garnishment order?
- A. Consumer Credit Protection Act of 1968
- B. LaborManagement Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959
- C. Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970
- D. Equal Pay Act of 1963
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: The Consumer Credit Protection Act of 1968 made it illegal to discharge an employee after only one garnishment order. This provision is to be enforced by the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor. The section of the Consumer Credit Protection Act that deals with wage garnishment is Title III.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following federal agencies is responsible for enforcing corporate governance?
- A. SEC
- B. OFCCP
- C. EEOC
- D. MSHA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: The SEC is responsible for enforcing corporate governance. The EEOC and the OFCCP enforce civil rights laws. MSHA is the Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977, so it is not an enforcing agency. This particular piece of legislation focuses on the specific requirements for mine workers and does not enforce corporate governance in general.
NEW QUESTION # 24
The Greendale Company is thinking about adjusting its executive compensation package. There is some concern, however, that the new program will adversely affect the company's tax burden. The Greendale Company should ask the IRS for a(n)
- A. expansion clause.
- B. private letter ruling.
- C. audit.
- D. trade exception.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The Greendale Company should ask the IRS for a private letter ruling. Private letter rulings are a courtesy provided by the Internal Revenue Service. When a company is uncertain about the tax implications of a proposed change, it may submit the details to the IRS and receive an estimate. In the long run, the effort expended by the IRS on private letter rulings obviates the need for more work cleaning up unanticipated messes.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is not a piece of legislation that covers employee deferred compensation programs?
- A. Retirement Equity Act
- B. Pension Protection Act
- C. Family Medical and Leave Act
- D. Older Worker Benefit Protection Act
- E. Small Business Job Protection Act
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Among the answer choices provided, only the Family Medical and Leave Act does not reference or cover employee deferred compensation programs. The Retirement Equity Act (answer choice B), the Small Business Job Protection Act (answer choice C), the Older Worker Benefit Protection Act (answer choice D), and the Pension Protection Act (answer choice E) all provide for deferred employee compensation programs in some way.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following types of bargaining strategies between an employer and union employees is considered to be illegal?
- A. Lockout
- B. Sitdown strike
- C. Secondary boycott
- D. Double breasting
- E. Common situs picketing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: While some types of strikes are fully legal, a sitdown strike is considered illegal. Double breasting is a reference to different types of businesses one being union and the other being nonunionand it has no immediate connection to bargaining strategies, so answer choice A is incorrect. A lockout is the result of an employer stopping work indefinitely, but it is not a bargaining strategy, so answer choice B is incorrect. A secondary boycott is the result of a union attempting to require the participation of a secondary employer who is not directly involved in a union issue with the primary employer, so answer choice C is incorrect. Common situs picketing is the result of two employers sharing a business location when one of the employers is engaged in a labor dispute with employees, so answer choice D is incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A small landscaping company argues that complying with ADA regulations would constitute an undue hardship. Which of the following company characteristics would NOT be considered by the government when evaluating this claim?
- A. Location of the company
- B. Cost of making reasonable accommodations
- C. Size of the company
- D. Financial status of the company
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: The government would not consider the location of the company when evaluating a claim that complying with ADA regulations would constitute an undue hardship. The government does issue some exceptions to the ADA in cases where compliance would significantly impair a business' viability. However, the precise location of the business should not have any effect.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which three factors does the HAY system use to classify jobs?
- A. knowledge, skill, and responsibility
- B. knowledge, accountability, and problem solving
- C. knowledge, experience, and seniority
- D. knowledge, skill, and ability
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The HAY system classifies jobs according to knowledge, accountability, and problem solving. This system, which was developed in 1943, is a form of point factor grading. A job's accountability is the degree to which other members of the organization rely on that employee.
NEW QUESTION # 29
How long after filing with the Department of Labor are ERISA records required to be maintained?
- A. 7 years
- B. 5 years
- C. 6 years
- D. 4 years
- E. 8 years
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Once a company has filed ERISA records with the Department of Labor, that company is required to maintain those records for a minimum of six years. Answer choices A, B, D, and E are incorrect because they do not reflect accurate federal guidelines for ERISA record keeping.
NEW QUESTION # 30
The development section of a large energy company is in the process of overhauling its risk management program. In particular, the development section expects to assemble a new risk management program that takes previous situations more carefully into account. The head of the development company has contacted the human resources department for advice. What is the role of the human resources professional in this situation?
- A. Establish parameters for the development section to begin assembling its new risk management program
- B. Recommend a training program for employees of the development section to implement the risk management program
- C. Provide the development section of the company with documentation that details current legal requirements for risk management
- D. Remain in contact with the department and ensure that the risk management program meets all legal and procedural requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: In this situation, the human resources professional should remain in contact with the development section of the company to ensure that the new risk management program meets all legal and procedural requirements. Answer choices A and C represent elements of this process, but neither providing the development section of the company with documentation that details current legal requirements for risk management or establishing parameters for the development section to begin assembling its new risk management program is complete in itself. Recommending a training program might be useful, but it is more likely that the development section will create its own training program that fits the unique needs of the new risk management program. In this case, once again, the human resources professional should be involved largely in an advisory position to ensure that all legal/procedural requirements are followed and met.
NEW QUESTION # 31
The orientation program at Company X is considered very intense. New employees are given a crash course in organizational philosophy, and are discouraged from voicing their opinions or concerns. Which type of people processing strategy is Company X using?
- A. collective
- B. investiture
- C. contest
- D. divestiture
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: Company X is using a divestiture people processing strategy. This type of strategy aims to reduce the influence of personal characteristics on the organization. Military institutions typically employ a divestiture people processing strategy, with the aim of making individual soldiers subservient to the imperatives of the group. Investiture people processing strategies, on the other hand, give new employees a chance to express themselves and apply their personal idiosyncrasies to the organization. Contest people processing strategies do not sort new employees by interest or ability; instead, they put every new employee through the same program, and make decisions about placement once orientation is complete. Finally, collective people processing strategies emphasize cooperation between new employees.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following statements about unions is true?
- A. Unions may not participate in secondary boycotts.
- B. Unions may picket even where another union is the legal bargaining representative.
- C. Unions may require employers to terminate antiunion employees.
- D. Unions may not be held liable for coercive acts by union members.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: Unions may not participate in secondary boycotts. A secondary boycott occurs when the union tries to make the employer stop doing business with a third party. The other answer choices are false statements.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following refers to the measurement of the relationship between the characteristics of each employee and his actual performance in the position?
- A. Content validity
- B. Construct validity
- C. Concurrent validity
- D. Criterion validity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Construct validity is the measurement of the relationship between the characteristics of each employee and his actual performance in the position. Criterion validity results when a certain criterion (or work trait) is predicted and then results. Concurrent validity is a type of criterion validity (along with predictive validity). Content validity is simply a test that measures whether or not a candidate is qualified to complete an important part of the job. A simple example might be an audition for a dance company; the job description requires the dancers to perform in the company, so the construct validity starts by measuring whether or not those at the audition have acceptable dance training.
NEW QUESTION # 34
The LaborManagement Reporting and Disclosure Act (LMRDA) of 1959 required that local unions conduct leadership elections how often?
- A. Every 2 years
- B. Every 5 years
- C. Every 3 years
- D. Every 4 years
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: LMRDA required that local unions conduct leadership elections every three years. Answer choice D reflects the requirement for national unions (discussed in question 151). The other answer choices do not reflect union leadership election requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Nine weeks after giving birth, Deirdre comes back to work on a reduced schedule. Instead of her normal 40hour week, she only works 30 hours. How many weeks of FMLA leave does Deirdre use for each of these thirtyhour weeks?
- A. 1/4
- B. 0
- C. 1
- D. 1/2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: For every tenhour week Deirdre works, she uses 1/4 of an FMLA leave week. This is calculated by dividing the number of hours off in her reduced schedule by the number of hours in her normal schedule. Because she has three weeks left of FMLA leave, Deirdre may work twelve weeks of this reduced schedule before her leave expires.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following best expresses the definition of benchmark positions?
- A. Review of value in positions within an organization
- B. Change in significant jobs in a company
- C. Evaluation of current jobs
- D. Review of market conditions for salaries
- E. Common jobs within all organizations
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation: Benchmark positions are simply the types of positions that are common within all organizations, such as administrative assistants. Benchmark positions do not, however, relate to an evaluation of current jobs (answer choice B), a review of market conditions for salaries (answer choice C), a change in significant jobs in a company (answer choice D), and a review of the value of various positions within an organization (answer choice E).
NEW QUESTION # 37
How far in advance of a planned union picketing must a representation petition be completed?
- A. 60 days
- B. 45 days
- C. 15 days
- D. 30 days
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: A representation petition must be completed at least 30 days in advance of a planned union picketing. Failing to submit the petition within this time frame can result in the petition being unrecognized and thus being deemed an unfair labor practice. Among the answer choices, 15 days is obviously too short of a notice, and both 45 days and 60 days exceed the legal expectation. The union may, of course, notify that far in advance, but it is not necessary.
NEW QUESTION # 38
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