Provide Valid N10-008 Dumps To Help You Prepare For CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Exam Dec 08, 2023
CompTIA N10-008 Dumps Questions [2023] Pass for N10-008 Exam
CompTIA N10-008 exam covers a wide range of topics related to networking, including network architecture, network operations, network security, and network troubleshooting. N10-008 exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to configure, manage, and troubleshoot various network devices such as routers, switches, firewalls, and wireless access points. It also covers the latest networking technologies such as cloud computing and virtualization.
NEW QUESTION # 237
A network client is trying to connect to the wrong TCP port. Which of the following responses would the client MOST likely receive?
- A. FIN
- B. ICMP Time Exceeded
- C. Redirect
- D. RST
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 238
A network administrator needs to configure a server to use the most accurate NTP reference available. Which of the following NTP devices should the administrator select?
- A. Stratum 2
- B. Stratum 4
- C. Stratum 1
- D. Stratum 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Stratum 1 devices are the most accurate ntp time sources accessible via a network connection. A Stratum 1 device would normally be synchronised via a Stratum 0 reference clock.
Reference: https://endruntechnologies.com/products/ntp-time-servers/stratum1
NEW QUESTION # 239
A network technician reviews an entry on the syslog server and discovers the following message from a switch:
SPANNING-TREE Port 1/1 BLOCKED
Which of the following describes the issue?
- A. The link-local address on the port is incorrect.
- B. The port was shut down, and it needs to be reactivated.
- C. A loop was discovered, and the impact was mitigated.
- D. An incorrectly pinned cable was disconnected.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 240
Which of the following protocols is widely used in large-scale enterprise networks to support complex networks with multiple routers and balance traffic load on multiple links?
- A. STP
- B. OSPF
- C. RIPv2
- D. QoS
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 241
The following instructions were published about the proper network configuration for a videoconferencing device:
"Configure a valid static RFC1918 address for your network. Check the option to use a connection over NAT." Which of the following is a valid IP address configuration for the device?
- A. 100.64.0.1
- B. 172.19.0.2
- C. FE80::1
- D. 169.254.1.2
- E. 224.0.0.12
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
172.19.0.2 is a valid IP address configuration for the device that uses a static RFC1918 address for the network and allows for a connection over NAT (Network Address Translation). RFC1918 addresses are private IP addresses that are not routable on the public Internet and are used for internal networks. The RFC1918 address ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. NAT is a technique that translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses when communicating with external networks, such as the Internet. FE80::1 is an IPv6 link-local address that is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT.
100.64.0.1 is an IPv4 address that belongs to the shared address space range (100.64.0.0/10) that is used for carrier-grade NAT (CGN) between service providers and subscribers, which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 169.254.1.2 is an IPv4 link-local address that is automatically assigned by a device when it cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server or manual configuration, which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 224.0.0.12 is an IPv4 multicast address that is used for VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT.
NEW QUESTION # 242
A network administrator requires redundant routers on the network, but only one default gateway is configurable on a workstation. Which of the following will allow for redundant routers with a single IP address?
- A. STP
- B. MPLS
- C. VRRP
- D. EIGRP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is a protocol that allows for redundant routers on the network with a single IP address. VRRP works by creating a virtual router that consists of one master router and one or more backup routers. The virtual router has its own IP address and MAC address that are shared among the routers in the group. The master router responds to traffic sent to the virtual router's IP address, while the backup routers monitor the master router's status. If the master router fails, one of the backup routers takes over as the new master router and continues to respond to traffic. This way, VRRP provides high availability and fault tolerance for the network. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 230)
NEW QUESTION # 243
A network requirement calls for segmenting departments into different networks. The campus network is set up with users of each department in multiple buildings. Which of the following should be configured to keep the design simple and efficient?
- A. Jumbo frames
- B. MDIX
- C. Port tagging
- D. Flow control
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 244
A network administrator redesigned the positioning of the APs to create adjacent areas of wireless coverage. After project validation, some users still report poor connectivity when their devices maintain an association to a distanced AP. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST?
- A. Check to see if MU-MIMO was properly activated on the APs
- B. Validate the roaming settings on the APs and WLAN clients
- C. Verify that the AP antenna type is correct for the new layout
- D. Deactivate the 2.4GHz band on the APS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The network administrator should check the roaming settings on the APs and WLAN clients first. Roaming is the process of switching from one AP to another without losing connectivity. If the roaming settings are not configured properly, some users may experience poor connectivity when their devices stay connected to a distant AP instead of switching to a closer one. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/82068-roam-faq.html
NEW QUESTION # 245
A customer called the help desk to report a network issue. The customer recently added a hub between the switch and the router in order to duplicate the traffic flow to a logging device. After adding the hub, all the Other network components that were connected to the switch slowed more than expected. Which Of the following is the MOST likely cause Of the issue?
- A. Flow control failure
- B. STP malfunction
- C. 802.1Q disabled
- D. Duplex mismatch
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A duplex mismatch is a situation where two devices on a network have different duplex settings, such as full-duplex or half-duplex. Full-duplex means that a device can send and receive data simultaneously, while half-duplex means that a device can only send or receive data at a time. A duplex mismatch can cause performance issues, such as collisions, errors, or slow throughput. In this scenario, the customer added a hub between the switch and the router. A hub is a device that operates at half-duplex and broadcasts all traffic to all ports. A switch and a router are devices that operate at full-duplex and forward traffic to specific ports.
Therefore, adding a hub between the switch and the router can cause a duplex mismatch and slow down all the other network components that were connected to the switch.
References: https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/hub-vs-switch-vs-router/
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/ethernet/10561-3.html
NEW QUESTION # 246
A network administrator is trying to identify a device that is having issues connecting to a switchport. Which of the following would BEST help identify the issue?
- A. A syslog server
- B. A rack diagram
- C. The security log
- D. Change management records
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 247
A help desk technician discovers the following note while reviewing tickets in a customer's account:
Which of the following describes what the technician was documenting with this note?
- A. The technician was establishing a plan of action and identifying potential effects.
- B. The technician was testing a theory to determine the cause.
- C. The technician was identifying the problem by gathering information.
- D. The technician was approaching multiple problems individually.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The technician was identifying the problem by gathering information with this note. This is the first step of the troubleshooting methodology, which is a systematic process of finding and resolving issues in a network or system. By gathering information, the technician can understand the symptoms, scope, and impact of the problem, as well as collect relevant data from various sources, such as users, logs, tools, or documentation.
The note shows that the technician was asking questions to the user, checking the network status and configuration, and reviewing previous tickets to gather information about the problem. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Troubleshooting Methodology - CompTIA Network+ N10-007 -
1.4 | Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses
NEW QUESTION # 248
A technician is troubleshooting a client's report about poor wireless performance. Using a client monitor, the technician notes the following information:
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the issue?
- A. Wrong antenna type
- B. Channel overlap
- C. Poor signal
- D. Incorrect power settings
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 249
Which of the following will reduce routing table lookups by performing packet forwarding decisions independently of the network layer header?
- A. mGRE
- B. VRRP
- C. EIGRP
- D. MPLS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Multiprotocol Label Switching, or MPLS, is a networking technology that routes traffic using the shortest path based on "labels," rather than network addresses, to handle forwarding over private wide area networks. As a scalable and protocol-independent solution, MPLS assigns labels to each data packet, controlling the path the packet follows. MPLS greatly improves the speed of traffic, so users don't experience downtime when connected to the network.
NEW QUESTION # 250
While waking from the parking lot lo an access-controlled door an employee sees an authorized user open the door. Then the employee notices that another person catches the door before It closes and goes inside Which of the following attacks Is taking place?
- A. Tailgating
- B. Phisning
- C. Shoulder surfing
- D. Pipgybacking
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 251
Given the following information:
Which of the following command-line tools would generate this output?
- A. dig
- B. netstat
- C. tracert
- D. arp
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Tracert is a command-line tool that traces the route of a packet from a source to a destination and displays the number of hops and the round-trip time for each hop. The output shown in the question is an example of a tracert output, which shows five hops with their IP addresses and hostnames (if available) and three latency measurements for each hop in milliseconds. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.lumen.com/help/en-us/network/traceroute/understanding-the-traceroute-output.html
NEW QUESTION # 252
Two users on a LAN establish a video call. Which of the following OSI model layers ensures the initiation coordination, and termination of the call?
- A. Session
- B. Physical
- C. Transport
- D. Data link
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 253
A network administrator is creating a subnet for a remote office that has 53 network devices. An additional requirement is to use the most efficient subnet. Which of the following CIDR notations indicates the appropriate number of IP addresses with the LEAST amount of unused addresses? (Choose Correct option and give explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)
- A. /24
- B. /28
- C. /26
- D. /32
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
This CIDR notation indicates that there are 64 IP addresses, of which 62 are usable for network devices. This provides the LEAST amount of unused addresses, making it the most efficient subnet for a remote office with
53 network devices. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "Subnetting allows you to divide one large network into smaller, more manageable networks or subnets."
NEW QUESTION # 254
Which of the following policies outlines the software and hardware requirements for using personally owned devices to conduct business?
- A. DLP
- B. BYOD
- C. NDA
- D. AUP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The policy that outlines the software and hardware requirements for using personally owned devices to conduct business is BYOD (Bring Your Own Device). BYOD is a practice that allows employees to use their own devices, such as laptops, tablets, or smartphones, to access corporate resources and applications. BYOD can offer benefits such as increased productivity, flexibility, and satisfaction for employees, as well as reduced costs for employers. However, BYOD also poses challenges and risks, such as security, compatibility, and support issues. Therefore, a BYOD policy is needed to define the rules and expectations for using personal devices in a business environment. A BYOD policy typically covers topics such as device eligibility, security requirements, acceptable use, data ownership, privacy, and liability. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 362; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 14-2.
NEW QUESTION # 255
A company needs to virtualize a replica of its internal physical network without changing the logical topology and the way that devices behave and are managed. Which of the following technologies meets this requirement?
- A. SDWAN
- B. VIP
- C. NFV
- D. MPLS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Network Function Virtualization (NFV) is a technology that allows for the virtualization of a replica of a network's physical topology and the way it behaves without changing the logical topology and the way that devices are managed. NFV allows for the virtualization of network functions such as routers, firewalls, and switches, resulting in increased flexibility and scalability. This makes NFV an ideal technology for companies looking to virtualize a replica of their internal physical network.
NEW QUESTION # 256
A network technician is reviewing an upcoming project's requirements to implement laaS. Which of the following should the technician consider?
- A. Type of database to be installed
- B. Operating system maintenance
- C. Server hardware requirements
- D. Software installation processes
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking over the Internet. When implementing IaaS, the network technician should consider the server hardware requirements, such as CPU, RAM, disk space, and network bandwidth, that are needed to run the applications and services on the cloud. The other options are not relevant to IaaS, as they are either handled by the cloud provider or by the end-user. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-iaas
NEW QUESTION # 257
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